Washim District Court Question paper Set 1

1. Do not take leave…………… me, I will be left alone.

(1) by

(2) of

(3) off

(4) from

Ans:- (2) of

2. The city was kept………….. night curfew for several days.

(1) on

(2) at

(3) under

(4) over

Ans:- (3) under

3. Give……..answer to this question.

(1) an

(2) a

(3) the

(4) None of these

Ans:- (1) an

4. Always attend……….. what your teachers say.

(1) on

(2) to

(3) over

(4) for

Ans:- (2) to

5. Which organization collects data for the unorganized sector?

(1) NSSO

(2) CSO

(3) ASI

(4) RBI

Ans:- (1) NSSO

6. In which country, financial legislation is introduced in the upper house of the legislature?

(1) Australia

(2) France

(3) Japan

(4) Germany

Ans:- (3) Japan

7. The secretary General of UNO is appointed by-

(1) The General Assembly

(2) The Security Council

(3) The International Court of Justice

(4) The General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Councilo.

Ans:- (1) The General Assembly

8. How many fundamental duties are included in India Constitution?

(1) Nine

(2) Ten

(3) Eleven

(4) Twelve

Ans:- (2) Ten

9. The Vice-president of India is also the-

(1) Speaker of Lok-sabha

(2) Ex- officio chairman of Rajya- sabha

(3) Head of the State

(4) Head of the Government

Ans:- (2) Ex- officio chairman of Rajya- sabha

10. Through which educational report Calcutta University came into existence?

(1) Macaulay’s Minute

(2) Hunter Commission

(3) Charter Act

(4) Wood’s dispatch

Ans:- (4) Wood’s dispatch

11. The languages used to write source materials in ancient was-

(1) Sanskrit

(2) Pali

(3) Brahmi

(4) Kharosthi

Ans:- (1) Sanskrit

12. ‘Ani – I – Akbari’ has been authored by-

(1) Abul fazal

(2) Al Baruni

(3) Ferishta

(4) Amir khusro

Ans:- (1) Abul fazal

13. The Standard time of India is-

(1) 5 ½  hours ahead of GMT

(2) 4 ½ hours behind of GMT

(3) 4 hours ahead of GMT

(4) 5 ½ hours behind of GMT

Ans:- (1) 5 ½  hours ahead of GMT

14. Black forests are found in-

(1) France

(2) Germany

(3) Czechoslovakia

(4) Rumania

Ans:- (1) France

15. Which of the following awards is instituted by the UNESCO?

(1) Nehru Award for international understanding

(2) kalinga Prize

(3) Arjuna Award

(4) Nobel prize

Ans:- (2) kalinga Prize

16. The concept of ‘survival of the fittest; was first advocated by–

(1) Oparin

(2) Darwin

(3) Spencer

(4) Haeckel

Ans:- (2) Darwin

17. Deficiency of vitamin D in children causes-

(1) Beri- beri

(2) Pellogra

(3) Rickets

(4) Scurvy

Ans:- (3) Rickets

18. In man, the normal number of chromosomes is-

(1) 42

(2) 44

(3) 46

(4) 48

Ans:- (3) 46

19. Sour taste of ‘Coca – Cola’ is due to the presence of-

(1) acetic acid

(2) phosphoric acid

(3) hydrochloric acid

(4) formic acid

Ans:- (1) acetic acid

20. Green house effect is caused by –

(1) Nitrogen

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Carbon monoxide

(4) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans:- (2) Carbon dioxide

21. The offi9cial Mascot of the Melbourne Common Wealth Games held inmarch 2006 was-

(1) Kangaro

(2) Ostrich

(3) South-Eastern Red- Tailed Black – Cockatoo named karak

(4) Peacock

Ans:- (3) South-Eastern Red- Tailed Black – Cockatoo named karak

22. The First Guinness Book of World Records appeared in the year

(1) 1950

(2) 1954

(3) 1960

(4) 1963

Ans:- (2) 1954

23. Who was the centurion in Indian Cricket?

(1) Vinu Manked

(2) C.K. Naidu

(3) Lala Amarnath

(4) Mansur Ali Pataudi

Ans:- (3) Lala Amarnath

24. Buddhism made an important impact by allowing two sections of society into its flod. There were-

(1) Merchants and priests

(2) Money lenders and slaves

(3) Warriors and Traders

(4) Woman and Sudras

Ans:- (4) Woman and Sudras

25. There are sets of English, Mathematics and Science books containing 336, 240, 96 books respectively have to be stacked in such a way that all the books are stored subject-wise and the height of each s5tack is the same. Total number of stacks will be___

(1) 14

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 48

Ans:- (1) 14

26. The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 6 If A gets Rs. 1100 less than B their total income (in rupees) is-

(1) 9900

(2) 12100

(3) 14400

(4) 10000

Ans:- (2) 12100

27. If a: b : c = 2 : 3 : 4 and 2a – 3b + 4c = 33, then the value of c is –

(1) 6

(2) 9

(3) 12

(4) 66/7

Ans:- (3) 12

28. 1 litre of water is added to 5 liter of alcohol – water solution containing 40% alcohol strength. The strength of alcohol ion the new solution will be

(1) 30%

(2) 33%

(3) 33 2/3 %

(4) 33 1/3 %

Ans:- (4) 33 1/3 %

29. The speeds of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4. A takes 20 min more than B reach a destination. In what time does A reach the destination?

(1) 1 1/3 h

(2) 2 h

(3) 2 2/3 h

(4) 1 2/3 h

Ans:- (1) 1 1/3 h

30. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 30% of the girls are scholarship holders, then the percentage of students, who do not get scholarship, is

(1) 50

(2) 72

(3) 75

(4) 76

Ans:- (4) 76

31. Rs.395 are divided among A, B and C in such a manner that B gets 25 percent more than A and 20 percent more than C. The share of A will be –

(1) Rs.195

(2) Rs.180

(3) Rs.98

(4) Rs.120

Ans:- (4) Rs.120

32. The average of 100 numbers is 44. The average of these 100 numbers and 4 other new number is 50. The average of the four new numbers will be –

(1) 800

(2) 200

(3) 176

(4) 24

Ans:- (2) 200

33. A company offers three types of successive discounts: (I) 25% and 15%, (II) 30% and 10%, (III) 35% and 5%. Which offer is the best for a customer?

(1) First offer

(2) Second offer

(3) Third offer

(4) Any one; all are equally good

Ans:- (3) Third offer

34. A money – lender borrows money at 4% per annum and pays the interest at the end of the year. He lends it at 6% per annum compound interest compounded half yearly and receives the interest at the end of the year. In this way, he gains Rs.104.50 a year. The amount of money he borrows, is

(1) Rs. 6,000

(2) Rs. 5,500

(3) Rs. 5,000

(4) Rs. 4,500

Ans:- (3) Rs. 5,000

35. What will be the next term?

DJG, MSP, VBY,?

(1) EKH

(2) PSM

(3) YBX

(4) GHD

Ans:- (1) EKH

36. What will be the middle digit of the middle number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order?

369, 279, 189, 349, 559

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 9

(4) 5

Ans:- (2) 4

37. If KUMAR is given the code number 64, what is the code of KUMAR?

(1) 65

(2) 69

(3) 73

(4) 74

Ans:- (3) 73

38. If ROHINI is coded as INIHOR, then AGNI could be written as

(1) IGNA

(2) INGA

(3) NIAG

(4) NIGA

Ans:- (1) IGNA

39. 18 X 21 = 2811, 65 X 72 = 7526, then 43 X 92 = ?

(1) 9234

(2) 9324

(3) 9423

(4) 2493

Ans:- (2) 9324

40. In a certain code, RESULT is coded as SULTRE. Then, IGHTBR when decoded will be

(1) BIRTH

(2) GIRTH

(3) RIGHT

(4) BRIGHT

Ans:- (4) BRIGHT

41. If DELHI is coded as 0405120809 and MADRAS as 130104180119, then BOMBAY will be coded as

(1) 0214120220124

(2) 215132125

(3) 021513020125

(4) 21513020125

Ans:- (3) 021513020125

 

42. Which of the following statements is false?

(1) A landlord shall not be entitled to recovery of possession of any premises so long as the tenant pays, or is ready and willing

to pay, the   amount  of the standard rent and permitted increases and  performs or observes the conditions of tenancy.

(2) No  suit  for  recovery  of arrears of rent shall be instituted by a landlord against the tenant until the expiration of 90 days next  after  notice  in  writing  of the demand of the standard rent or  permitted increases has been served upon the tenant.

(3) Pending the disposal of any suit, the Court may, out of any  amount paid or tendered by the tenant, pay to the landlord such  amount towards the payment of rent or permitted increases due to him as the Court thinks fit.

(4) None of the above.

Ans:(2)No  suit  for  recovery  of arrears of rent shall be instituted by a landlord against the tenant until the expiration of 90 days next  after  notice  in  writing  of the demand of the standard rent or  permitted increases has been served upon the tenant.

43. Bailment means_____________.

(1) the delivery of goods by one person to another to be returned by  way of an equivalent in other commodities.

(2) the delivery of goods by one person to another to be returned by  way of an equivalent in money.

(3) the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose  to be returned or otherwise disposed of as per the  order of the  bailor.

(4) all of the above.

Ans:- (3) the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose  to be returned or otherwise disposed of as per the  order of the  bailor.

44. Which of the following statements is/are false?

(1) Any   male   Hindu   may   dispose   of  by  Will his interest in a  Mitakshara   coparcenary   property, which   is capable of being  disposed by him, in accordance with the provisions of law.

(2)If an intestate has left no heir qualified to succeed to his property in accordance with the provisions of Hindu Succession Act, 1956,  such property shall devolve on the Government.

(3)While exercising preferential right to acquire property u/s. 22 of the  Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if there are two or more heirs  specified  in  Class I  of  the  schedule proposing to acquire any  interest  under  this  section, the  heir  in the first entry shall be  preferred to the heir in the second entry of the schedule.

(4)  None of the above.

Ans:(3)While exercising preferential right to acquire property u/s. 22 of the  Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if there are two or more heirs specified  in  Class I  of  the  schedule proposing to acquire any  interest  under  this  section, the  heir  in the first entry shall be  preferred to the heir in the second entry of the schedule.

45. When the Court may rectify instrument to express real intention of parties?

(1) If mistake is mutual.

(2) If mistake is unilateral.

(3) If mistake is of law.

(4) If mistake is in offer.

Ans:- (1) If mistake is mutual.

46. By the act of creating a Charge_________.

(1) a property is made security.

(2) interest in the property is transferred.

(3) possession in the property is transferred.

(4) title in the property is transferred.

Ans:- (1) a property is made security.

47. ‘A’ propounded a Will against ‘B’ in a suit.  ‘A’ contended that both the  attesting witnesses were dead.  How the Will can be proved if ‘B’ denies  the execution ?

(1) By proving that both the attesting witnesses are not alive.

(2) By proving that the attestation of one attesting witness at least is  in his handwriting.

(3) By proving that the signature of the person, who purported to  have executed the document, is in the handwriting of that person.

(4) All the above.

Ans:-  (4) All the above.

48. ‘A’ intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give ‘Z’  food, and partly by beating ‘Z’.  ‘A’  has committed an offence of ______.

(1) murder.

(2) attempt to murder.

(3) culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

(4) none of the above.

Ans:- (1) murder.

49. When   any   Court   u/s   345   of   Cri.P.C.   has   adjudged   an   offender   to   punishment  for  any  intentional  insult,  the  Court  may  u/s. 348  of   Cri.P.C., in its discretion, ____.

(1) discharges the offender.

(2) remits the punishment on apology being made to its satisfaction.

(3) both ‘a’ and ‘b’.

(4) none of the above.

Ans:- (3) both ‘a’ and ‘b’.

50. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) The Court may in alternative to the summons under Order V, Rule 9 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908, permit plaintiff to effect service  of  such  summons on defendant and in such a case, deliver the  summons to such plaintiff for service.

(2) Where  defendant resides within the jurisdiction of another Court  then subject to the rules framed by the High Court, the summons  may   be   sent   by   electronic mail service to the Court having  jurisdiction in the place where the defendant resides.

(3) When the defendant is a soldier the Court shall send the summons for service to the Ministry of Defense.

(4) All the above.

Ans:- (2) Where  defendant resides within the jurisdiction of another Court then subject to the rules framed by the High Court, the summons  may   be   sent   by   electronic mail service to the Court having  jurisdiction in the place where the defendant resides.