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Wardha District Court Question paper Set 1

  1. The “Wednesbury principle” is referable to :

(1) Administrative Law

(2) Service Law

(3) Labour Law

(4) Banking Law

  1. “Res ipsa loquitur” is the maxim used when :

(1) The circumstantial evidence is sufficient.

(2) There is no evidence available to prove a fact

(3) The things (circumstance) would speak for itself

(4) The witness is called from lock-up (detention).

  1. The legal principle “nec-vi, nec-ciam, nec-precrio” is in relation to :

(1) Plea of protection due to bonafide purchase.

(2) Plea of prescriptive title.

(3) Plea for condonation of delay.

(4) Plea of private defence.

  1. A dishonoured cheque issued in January 2007 towards repayment of loan advanced in December 2004 will cause following legal effect in a suit for recovery of loan amount.

(1) It would amount to neither acknowledgment nor part payment of debt and hence no fresh limitation will start running from date of the cheque in January, 2007.

(2) It will cause revival of the time barred debt and hence the amount can be recovered.

(3) It being dishonoured cheque cannot be treated as part payment of debt and thus, the suit will be barred by limitation.

(4) It is the cheque without consideration and will be of no effect, whatsoever for extension of limitation.

  1. The death of a Mohammedan person dying intestate, and leaving male and female heirs to inherit his properties will have the legal effect of

(1) The male and female legal heirs will become joint tenants.

(2) The male heirs will be co-parcerners and the female heirs will only have right of maintenance from the estate.

(3) The male and female heirs will become tenants in common

(4) The male members will be tenants in common and female heirs will be joint tenants.

  1. “Vishakha case decision” of the Apex Court relates to subject of :

(1) Domestic violence against Women.

(2) Sexual harassment of women at working places.

(3) Immoral trafficking in women.

(4) Custodial rape on women.

  1. “Corpus Delicti” would mean :

(1) Absence of dead body.

(2) Collection of fund for cops (police).

(3) Investigation of Crime.

(4) Commission of Crime.

  1. The concept of “Issue Estoppel” does imply :

(1) An estoppels due to decision in a criminal case for different offence on same set of facts, in the second case for another offence.

(2) An issue decided between same parties in Civil Suit which bars trial of such issue in another suit.

(3) An order issued by the High Court to stop further proceedings.

(4) The estoppel caused by Record.

  1. Which one of the following cannot be isolatedly transferred?

(1) An easementary right to approach a common well.

(2) An undivided share in the common Well.

(3) An electric motor house adjacent to the common Well along with electric motor, individually owned by a common share of the Well.

(4) Undivided share in common bathroom appurtenant to the common Well.

  1. When three things (viz. prima facie case, irreparable injury and balance of convenience) are same for both parties in a suit, the appropriate order to pass on interim application will be thus :

(1) Appointment of Court Receiver.

(2) Temporary Injunction in plaintiff’s favour.

(3) No interim order in favour of either party and dismissal of the application.

(4) Attachment of defendant’s property, before Judgment.

  1. Interpleader suit can be filed when :

(1) There is claim against Pleader (Advocate).

(2) The claim is filed against two or more defendants who have set up rival titles to the property, in order to locate real landlord by the tenant for payment of rent.

(3) The claim set up is against two or more trespassers in the property.

(4) In suit against two or more indigent person.

  1. The Nineth Schedule of the Constitution relates to the laws :

(1) Which cannot be judicially reviewed by the Courts and are protected from judicial scrutiny.

(2) The Laws which are not in the concurrent lists.

(3) The Laws which deal with detention and curtailment of liberties during emergency.

(4) The Laws pertaining to acquisition or requisition of properties.

  1. Doctrine of Merger deals with :

(a) Merger of self acquired property into the joint family property.

(b) Merger of different cadres to form uniform cadre.

(c) Merger of the lands during consolidation of holdings.

(d) Merger of appellate Court’s Judgment into the Original/ Trial Court’s Judgment.

  1. For taxation of property by Municipal Council, the “Rateable Value” is determined on the basis of :

(a) Market rate.

(b) Property value index of the Government.

(c) Rent for each year after deduction of maintenance charges (Normally 20%).

(d) The purchase value shown in the instrument like sale deed.

  1. An order to appoint Court Commissioner is sought for recording statements of witnesses in the proceedings filed for interim injunction under Order 39, Rule 1 and 2, C.P.C.

(a) You will reject the application as not maintainable.

(b) You will grant the application as permissible.

(c) You will pass alternative order for recording statements by visiting the Spot and to give report of fact finding on basis of such statement.

(d) You will yourself proceed to record such statements.

  1. In an application under Section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, for compensation on account of injury suffered by the claimant, the quantum can be determined on the basis of :

(a) The structured formula only.

(b) The structured formula cannot be used at all.

(c) The percentage of disability shown in the medical certificate without reference to occupation of the claimant.

(d) By using structured formula as a guideline besides other factors.

  1. What is the legal status of “Secularism” enshrined in the Constitution?

(1) It is a part of basic structure and cannot be changed.

(2) It is a part of directive principles and may be changed by 2/3rd majority in Parliament.

(3) Any religion can be regarded as religion of the Country by suitable amendment in the Constitution.

(4) It has restricted scope to the extent of fundamental rights available under the Constitution.

  1. In a private complaint case, which is found to be false, the question of awarding compensation to the accused can be decided as follows :

(1) By immediately passing order of compensation in the same order of acquittal.

(2) By immediately passing order to arrest and detain the complainant in default of payment of the fine/compensation, which may be awarded.

(3) By giving direction to the accused to file suit for compensation, while passing order of acquittal.

(4) By giving finding about falsity and after summary inquiry and deciding separately the issue of compensation.

  1. The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction to try a suit in :

(1) Important question of interpretation of Constitutional provisions.

(2) Important international disputes between a Corporation like O.N.G.C. and Corporation in U.S.A.

(3) In disputes between national political parties.

(4) The civil disputes between two States.

  1. For purpose of precedent, a Judgment “per-in curium” would mean :

(1) A Judgment which does not decide any question of law.

(2) A Judgment which decides substantial question of law.

(3) A Judgment which decides personal right arising out of departmental enquiry.

(4) A Judgment which omits to consider existing law on the subject.

  1. On passing of the decree in appeal _______.

 

  1. The decree from which the appeal was preferred gets merged with the judgment in the appeal.
  2. Both the judgment and the decree from which the appeal was· preferred get merged with the judgment and the decree passed in the appeal.
  3. The decree from which appeal was preferred gets merged with, the decree passed in the appeal,
  4. Neither the decree nor the judgment appealed against gets merged in the decree passed in the appeal.

 

  1. A dying declaration is admissible__________.

 

  1. Only in criminal proceedings.
  2. Only in civil proceedings.
  3. Both in civil and criminal proceedings.
  4. in criminal proceedings alone and not in civil proceedings.

 

  1. Mushaa under Mohammadan Law means____________.

 

  1. A distinct and separate share in the movable property.
  2. A distinct and separate share in the immovable property.
  3. An undivided share in the property either n.ovable or immovable.
  4. ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

 

 

  1. A transfer made directly to an unborn is_______.

 

  1. Void
  2. Valid
  3. Voidable at the option transferor
  4. Voidable

 

  1. Which One of the following is the correct position in respect of Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act?

 

  1. No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section. . ‘.
  2. No review of any such order or decree be allowed.

(i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.

(i) and (ii) are incorrect

(i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.

(i) and (ii) are incorrect.

 

  1. Ossification test is done to determine____________.

 

  1. Age.
  2. Sex.
  3. Blood group.
  4. Finger print.

 

  1. Wherever Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999 is applicable, what is the date of termination of tenancy?

 

  1. Date of notice by Landlord.
  2. Date of suit.
  3. Date of decree.
  4. Date on which breach is committed by tenant.

 

  1. What can be the maximum duration of an order of anticipatory bail?  

 

  1. until filing of charge sheet.
  2. until appearance of accused before Court.
  3. until conclusion of trial.
  4. None of the above.

 

  1. In  a  private  complaint  case, which  is  found  to be  false, the  question  of   awarding compensation to the accused can be decided as follows:­

 

  1. By immediately passing order of compensation in the same order of   acquittal.
  2. By immediately passing order to arrest and detain the complainant  in default of payment of the fine/compensation, which may be awarded.
  3. By giving direction to the accused to file suit for compensation, while passing order of acquittal.
  4. By giving finding about falsity and after summary inquiry and deciding separately the issue of compensation.

 

  1. Under the Bombay Court Fees Act, 1959, “Plaint” includes __________. 

 

  1. Any written statement.
  2. A written statement pleading a set­off only.
  3.  A written statement pleading a counter claim only.
  4.  A written statement pleading a set­ off or counter claim.

 

  1. Under the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 “instrument” includes________.

 

  1. A bond.
  2. A bill of exchange.
  3. A promissory note.
  4. A bill of lading.

 

  1. The   statements or facts by an accused in an application for plea bargaining________________.

 

  1. Can be used in any other case against the accused.
  2. Can be   used   in any other case against the accused only with the permission of the Court.
  3. Cannot be used for any other purpose except for the purpose of plea   bargaining.
  4. Can be used for any other purpose.

 

  1. Any man who watches or captures the image of a woman engaging in a privateact in circumstances where she would 

Usually have the expectation of not   being observed either by the perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of   the perpetrator or disseminates such image is guilty of an offence   of______________.

  1. Stalking.
  2. Voyeurism.
  3. Sexual Harassment.
  4. Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe.

 

  1. The imprisonment in default of fine______________.

 

  1. Shall   be   in addition to a substantive sentence maximum awardable under Section 29 without any specific order.
  2. Shall be in addition to a substantive sentence only when a specific order to that effect is passed.
  3. Shall not be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable by the Magistrate.
  4. Shall be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable but subject to the upper limit for substantive sentence Prescribed under Section 29.

 

 

 

  1. Propositions as regards the liability of the surety under the surety bond are:­
  2. The liability of the surety is mutually exclusive of the liability of the   accused under his personal bond.
  3. The liability of the surety is contingent on the liability of the accused under his personal bond.

III. is limited to the amount of the surety bond. Now which of the following is correct?

  1. I & III are correct.
  2. I & II are correct.
  3. II & III are correct.
  4. I, II & III, all are correct.

 

  1. Proceedings under Section 258 of Cr.P.C. can be stopped_________.
  2. In a summons case instituted upon a complaint.
  3. In   a summons   case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint.
  4. In a warrant case instituted upon a complaint.
  5. In a warrant case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint.

 

  1. Under   section   102   of   I.P.C.   the   right   to   private   defence   of   the   body______.

 

  1. Commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body  arises and continues as long as that apprehension continues.
  2. Commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues even after that apprehension ceases.
  3. Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during the period of assault.
  4. Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues after the assailant has left.

 

  1. Under section 149 of I.P.C. if an offence is committed by a member of anunlawful assembly in furtherance of their 

Common object_________.

  1. Every person who at that time was a member of that assembly shall be  guilty of that offence.
  2. Only the person   committing   the  offence  shall   be  guilty  of  that  offence and all shall be guilty of unlawful assembly only.
  3. only  that  person committing  the  offence  shall  be  guilty  and others  shall not be guilty of any offence.
  4. Either (b) or (c).

 

  1. Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M outsiders trespassed and started harvesting, on protest by Y they beat him up and hearing his cries, X and P, Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed in, one of them X, fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away.  P was arrested and 

Charged under section 302 of the I.P.C. for murder read with section 34. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. He   is liable for murder because  of  the  similar  intention of both the brothers.
  2. He is liable for murder because  of the same intention of both the  brothers.
  3. He is liable for murder because he was present when his brother forced at the trespassers.
  4. He is not liable because there was no common intention to kill.

 

  1. Section 27 applies to __________________.

1.Discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by the  accused.

  1. Discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources.
  2. Discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same.
  3. All the above.

 

  1. Confession of one accused is admissible against co accused________.

 

  1. if they are tried jointly for the same offences.
  2. if they are tried jointly for different offences.
  3. if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly.
  4. if they are tried for different offences and not jointly

 

 

  1. Parties by their consent/agreement_______________.

 

  1. can confer jurisdiction on a court, where there is none in law. 6-A
  2. can oust the jurisdiction of the court where there is one in law.
  3. can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are  two courts   simultaneously having jurisdiction in law.
  4. all the above.

 

 

 

 


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