Gondia District Court Question paper Set 1-mahasarkar

District High Court Maharashtra recruitment 2018- mahasarkar

1.The extension of period of limitation on the ground of legal disability available under section 6 and 7 of the Limitation Act is not applicable to suits___________.
1)To enforce right of pre-examination.
2)For recovery of money.
3)For specific performance of contract.
4)For declaration of easement.

2.When once time has begun to run_________.
1)Subsequent disability to institute the suit will not stop it.
2)Subsequent disability to institute the suit will stop it.
3)Subsequent disability will be a ground for condo nation of delay in instituting the suit.
4)None of the above.

3.Presumption under Section 20 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, where public servant accepts gratification other legal remuneration is not applicable in a trail an offence punishable under_______.
1)Section 7.
2)Section II.
3)Clause (e) of sub section (1) Section 13.
4)Clause (a) of sub section (1) Section 13.

4.U/s. 7 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, the word “gratification”__________.
1.is restricted to pecuniary gratification.
2.is restricted to gratifications estimable in money.
3.is not restricted to pecuniary gratifications or to gratification estimable in money.
4. is restricted to gratifications computable in money.

5.A protection order made under Section 18 of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 shall be in force till_________.
1.The period of 60 days expires.
2.The Magistrate desires.
3.The aggrieved person applies for discharge.
4.The respondent applies for discharge.

6.Which formality is essential for a valid adoption?
1.Homa
2.Registration
3.Actual giving and taking
4.Written document

7.Under Muslim law, a daughter, as a residuary, takes_________.
1.Double the share of a son.
2.Equal the share of a son
3.Half the share of the son.
4.No share at all if the son is alive

8.If a Mahomedan marries a fifth wife when he already has four wives, the marriage is________.
1. Void
2. Voidable
3. Irregular.
4. Valid.

9.Under Hindu Law a karta of the joint family can alienate the property__________.
1.Only for legal necessity.
2.Only for benefit of estate.
3.for both legal necessity and benefit of estate.
4.Only after obtaining permission from the court.

10.If a legacy is given to two persons jointly, and one of them dies before the testator,_________.
1.The other legatee takes the whole.
2.The legacy lapses.
3.The other legatee takes nothing
4. The other legatee and the representative of the deceased share the legacy, equally.

11. No probate of Will shall be granted until after the expiration of_____ clear days, from the day of the testators death.
1.Seven
2.Fourteen
3.Thirty
4.Ninety

12. The report of vthe Probation Officer is considered to be______
1. privileged.
2.confidential
3.a piece of evidence.
4.indispensable in all cases.

13.Rights to do acts necessary to Decure full enjoyment of an easement are called________.
1.prescriptive rights.
2.customary rights.
3.propritary rights.
4.accessory rights.

14.A “cheque” is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable
1.on demand
2.otherwise than on demand.
3.to type
4.either to order or to bearer.

15.Under the SC and St (Prevention of Atrocities Act), 1989, “Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes” shall have the meanings, assigned to them.
1.Under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
2.under the Schedule annexed to the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995.
3.under Xlause (24) and Cluse (25) of Article 336 of the Constitution.
4. under the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.

16.Under Negotiable Instrument Act 1881, where no rate of interest is specified in the instrument, interest on the amount due thereon shall be calculated at the rate of ________per centurm per annum.
1.Six
2.Nine
3.Fifteen
4.eighteen

17.In a contract of Sale of goods, the breach of a warranty, gives rise to-______.
1.a right to reject the goods.
2.a right to treat the contract as repudiated.
3.a claim for damages.
4. none of the above.

18. Under the general Clauses Act 1897, “District Judge” shall______

1. include a High Court in the exercise of its original Jurisdication.
2. mean the judge of a Principal Civil Court of Jurisdiction.
3. mean the judge of a Principal Civil Court of Original Jurisdiction.
4.denote a person who is empowered by law, to give in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal a definitive judgment.

19. The principal of “Sustainable development”, relates to_______
1.Business Development Law
2.Banking Law
3. International law
4.Environmental Law.

20. A opens a coaching class in front of B’s coaching class. Majority of the students of B shift to A. The situation will be governed by which one of the following principles.
1.injuria sine damnum
2.damnum sine injuria
3.vis major
4. volenti non fit injuria

21.The Rule of “strict liability” was enunciated in which one of the following cases:
1. Askhby v. White
2. Donoghue vs. Stevenson
3. Stanely v. Powel
4. Ryland v. Fletcher

22. Where the death of, or bodily injury to, any person gives rise to a claim for compensation under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and also under Workmen’s Compensation
Act 1923 the person entitled to compensation may claim such compensation

1. under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 only
2. under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 only
3. under either of those Acts
4. under both the Acts

23.”Suppressio Veri” means-
1. suppression of verification
2. suppression of truth
3. valid supersession
4. Verification by superior authority.

24. “Res nullius” means-
1. Things newly introduced
2. Things belonging to no one
3. Nobady
4. Non-existant

25.Write short notes on the following :
1.Temporary mandatory injunction.
2.Discharge (Section 227 of Cr.P.C.)
3.Court Receiver.
4.Double Jeopardy.
5.Appeal against orders under Civil Procedure Code.
6.Revisional Jurisdiction under Criminal Procedure Code.
7.Discretion of Court to grant specific performance.
8.Concept of ‘ beyond reasonable doubt ‘.
9.Bar of jurisdiction of Civil Court.
10.Law of appreciation of circumstantial evidence.

26.Answer in detail.
1.How is the Hindu womans’ right to property affected by the recent
amendment to Section 6 of Hindu Succession Act?

2.Discuss the different theories of punishment with reference to the
object sought to be achieved thereby and justify which according
to you is most suitable in the present times?

3.Discuss as to how Article 14 of Constitution has evolved over the
period of time especially because of judicial interpretation?

27.Write short notes of the following:

1.’Criminal breach of trust’ and ‘misappropriation: of pro’perty’:
2.Rule of “Res- gestae”,
3.Dying declaration.
4.Relevance of the evidence of a hostile witness.

28.Discuss of the following Sentence:

1.Plea bargaining
2.Doctrine of Transfer of malice
3.Plea of alibi
4.Insanity (Medical and Legal)- a defence

29.Ossification test is done to determine____________.
1. age.
2. sex.
3. blood group.
4. finger print.

30.Wherever Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999 is applicable, what is the date
of termination of tenancy?1. Date of notice by Landlord.
2. Date of suit.
3. Date of decree.
4. Date on which breach is committed by tenant

31.What can be the maximum duration of an order of anticipatory bail?
1. Until filing of charge sheet.
2. Until appearance of accused before Court.
3. Until conclusion of trial.
4. None of the above.

32. In a private complaint case, which is found to be false, the question of
awarding compensation to the accused can be decided as follows:1. By immediately passing order of compensation in the same order of
acquittal.
2. By immediately passing order to arrest and detain the complainant
in default of payment of the fine/compensation, which may be awarded.
3. By giving direction to the accused to file suit for compensation, while
passing order of acquittal.
4. By giving finding about falsity and after summary inquiry and deciding
separately the issue of compensation.

33.Under the Bombay Court Fees Act, 1959, “Plaint” includes __________.
1. any written statement.
2. a written statement pleading a setoff only.
3. a written statement pleading a counter claim only.
4. a written statement pleading a setoff or counter claim.

34.Under the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 “instrument” includes _________.
1. a bond.
2. a bill of exchange.
3. a promissory note.
4. a bill of lading.

35.The statements or facts by an accused in an application for plea bargaining________________.
1. can be used in any other case against the accused.
2. can be used in any other case against the accused only with the
permission of the Court.
3. cannot be used for any other purpose except for the purpose of plea
bargaining.
4. can be used for any other purpose.

36.Any man who watches or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed either by the perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator or disseminates such image is guilty of an offence of______________.

1. Stalking.
2. Voyeurism.
3. Sexual Harassment.
4. Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe.

37.The imprisonment in default of fine______________.
1. shall be in addition to a substantive sentence maximum awardable
under Section 29 without any specific order.
2. shall be in addition to a substantive sentence only when a specific order
to that effect is passed.
3. shall not be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable by the
Magistrate.
4. shall be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable but subject
to the upper limit for substantive sentence prescribed under Section 29.

38.The propositions are:

I. Delay in dispatch of the FIR is not a circumstance which can throw out
the prosecution case in its entirety.
II. Delay in dispatch of the FIR is a circumstance which can throw out the
prosecution case in its entirety.
III. The extraordinary delay in sending the FIR is a circumstance which
provides a legitimate basis for suspecting that the FIR was recorded
much later than the stated date and hour, affording sufficient time to
the prosecution to introduce improvements.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the aforesaid proposition?

1. I is true, II & III are false.
2. I & III are true, II is false.
3. II & III are true, I is false.
4. III is true, I & II are false.

39.Propositions as regards the liability of the surety under the surety bond are:
I. The liability of the surety is mutually exclusive of the liability of the
accused under his personal bond.
II. The liability of the surety is contingent on the liability of the accused
under his personal bond.
III. Is limited to the amount of the surety bond.

Now which of the following is correct?

1. I & III are correct.
2. I & II are correct.
3. II & III are correct.
4. I, II & III, all are correct.

40.Proceedings under Section 258 of Cr.P.C. can be stopped_________.
1. in a summons case instituted upon a complaint.
2. in a summons case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint.
3. in a warrant case instituted upon a complaint.
4. in a warrant case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint.

41.Under section 102 of I.P.C. the right to private defence of the body______.

1. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body
arises and continues as long as that apprehension continues.
2. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body
arises and continues even after that apprehension ceases.
3. commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during
the period of assault.
4. commences only when the assault is actually done and continues after
the assailant has left.

42.Under section 149 of I.P.C. if an offence is committed by a member of an
unlawful assembly in furtherance of their common object_________.1. every person who at that time was a member of that assembly shall be
guilty of that offence.
2. only the person committing the offence shall be guilty of that
offence and all shall be guilty of unlawful assembly only.
3. only that person committing the offence shall be guilty and others
shall not be guilty of any offence.
4. either (b) or (c)

43.Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M outsiders trespassed and started
harvesting, on protest by Y they beat him up and hearing his cries, X and P,
Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed in, one of them X,
fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away. P was arrested and

charged under section 302 of the I.P.C. for murder read with section 34.
Which of the following statements is correct?

1. he is liable for murder because of the similar intention of both the
brothers.
2. he is liable for murder because of the same intention of both the
brothers.
3. he is liable for murder because he was present when his brother forced
at the trespassers.
4. he is not liable because there was no common intention to kill.

44.Section 27 applies to __________________.
1. discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from
other sources and was first derived from the information given by the
accused.
2. discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other
sources.
3. discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other
sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same.
4. all the above

45.Confession of one accused is admissible against coaccused________.1. if they are tried jointly for the same offences.
2. if they are tried jointly for different offences.
3. if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly.
4. if they are tried for different offences and not jointly

46.Dhulabhai etc. v. State of Madhya Pradesh and another, AIR 1969 SC 78, lays
down certain principles regarding the exclusion of jurisdiction of civil courts.
Which of the following is not a principle laid down in this authority?

1. where   a   statute   gives  a finality to the orders of the special tribunals,
the civil courts jurisdiction must be held to be excluded if   there  is
adequate remedy to do what the civil court would normally do in a suit.
2. where   there   is   an  express  bar  of  jurisdiction  of  the court, an
examination of the scheme of the particular Act to find out the adequacy
or  sufficiency  of  the remedies provided may be relevant but is not
decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of the civil court.
3. questions   as   to   the   correctness  of  the  assessment apart from its
constitutionality are the decisions of the authorities and a civil suit lies
even if the orders of the authorities are declared to be final.
4. none of the above.

47.Parties by their consent/agreement_______________.
1. can confer jurisdiction on a court, where there is none in law.
6-A
2. can oust the jurisdiction of the court where there is one in law.
3. can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts
simultaneously having jurisdiction in law.
4. all the above.

48.Which of the following statements are correct?
1. the executing court must take the decree as it stands.
2. the executing court cannot go into the question whether the decree
has been obtained by fraud.
3. the executing court cannot question the legality, correctness or validity
of the decree.
4. all the above.

49.A garnishee order is an order___________.
1. prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to
the judgment debtor.
2. directing the judgment debtor’s creditor to take the payment from the
judgment debtor’s debtor.
3. permitting the judgment debtor’s debtor to make the payment to the
judgment debtor.
4. either (a) or (b) or (c).

50.’A’ owes ‘B’, under a contract, a sum of money, the amount of which has not
been ascertained. ‘A’, without ascertaining the amount, gives to ‘B’ and ‘B’,in
satisfaction thereof accepts the sum of Rs. 2000/.
This is a discharge of_______________.

1. whole debt.
2. part debt.
3. earnest money.
4. previous debt.

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Gondia District Court Question paper Set 1

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