MPSC Assistant Director Town Planning, Gr-A Online Examination- 2013
1. Which of the following governs the implementation of the Town Planning Schemes in Maharashtra?
a. Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966
b. Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Act, 1976
c. Maharashtra Municipality Act, 1985
d. Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act, 1949
2. In a Town Planning Scheme, if the size of the reconstituted plot is smaller than that of the original plot, the compensation amount is reflected in the difference between:
a. Semi Final Value of plot and Final Value of plot
b. Original Value of plot and Final Value of plot
c. Original Value of plot and Semi Final Value of plot
d. None of the above
3. The Tribunal of Appeal set up for a Town Planning Scheme in Maharashtra comprise: i. President ii. Arbitrator iii. Two Assessors iv. Representative of Planning Authority
a. i, ii and iii
b. i, and iii
c. i, ii, iv
d. i, ii, iii, iv
4. In Maharashtra, if the Planning Authority fails to submit the draft Town Planning Scheme within the period specified:
a. State Government can appoint an Officer to prepare and submit the draft scheme
b. Planning Authority can apply for extension of time period.
c. Planning Authority can make fresh declaration for the same scheme after stipulated time.
d. All the above
5. As per section 99 of MR&TP Act, the contribution by the owner of a plot in meeting the cost of Town Planning Scheme should :
a. Not exceed 50% of the increment estimated by the Arbitrator
b. Include the cost of plot reserved for public purpose
c. Include the cost of plot reserved for Planning Authority
d. All the above
6. If a contiguous area for which a Town Planning Scheme is to be prepared lies within the jurisdiction of two separate Planning Authorities then :
a. State Government forms a Special Planning Authority for the scheme
b. Each Planning Authority makes its own scheme
c. Planning Authority where larger area falls is liable for making the scheme
d. Planning Authority which serves larger population is liable for making the scheme
7. In Maharashtra, under a Town Planning Scheme, the Original, Semi Final and Final market values of plot is computed with reference to the value on the day when :
a. Final Scheme was submitted
b. Draft Scheme was submitted
c. Sanction was issued by the State Government
d. Intention to prepare scheme was declared
8. In Town Planning Scheme, the decision of Arbitrator is considered as final and has binding on all parties in case of :
a. Demarcation of area for public purpose
b. Contribution to be levied on each final plot
c. Estimation of the amount of compensation payable
d. Exemption granted to religious organization.
9. The per capita daily water requirement for a 200-bedded Hospital as per model building bye laws, circulated by TCPO, Ministry of Urban Development is:
a. 135 liter
b. 450 liter
c. 500 liter
d. 200 liter
10. As per the model building byelaws of TCPO, the maximum net density of dwelling units per hectare for low income group (LIG) housing is up to :
a. 200
b. 350
c. 300
d. 150
11. As per MR&TP Act 1966, the land owned by Central Government is:
a. Exempted from paying the development charge
b. Partially exempted from paying the development charge
c. Liable to pay the minimum development charge
d. Liable to pay the stipulated development charge
12. If a person undertakes development without the requisite permission, the Planning Authority may:
a. Serve notice for discontinuation of work
b. Ask to demolish unauthorized structure
c. Itself demolish unauthorized structure
d. All the above
13. The maximum permissible ground coverage allotted to a Foreign Mission for non residential purpose as per model building bye-laws of TCPO is:
a. 33%
b. 25%
c. 35%
d. 50%
14. Land appurtenant to a building is used for a purpose independent of the building, development charge may be levied:
a. Separately for the building and the land
b. same as for the building
c. same as for the appurtenant land
d. Only on the area on which building stands
15. Any person aggrieved by the assessment of development charge levied by the Planning Authority can ordinarily make an appeal (under 124G) before the expiry of :
a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days
16. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, NO permission from the Municipal Commissioner is required to erect a sky-sign when :
a. It is illuminated
b. Any addition or alteration is made
c. It is re-erected on expiry of approved period
d. It relates to the trade carried within the building upon which it is erected
17. Who can set up an SEZ?
a. Private Developer
b. PSU /State Government
c. Joint Sector Company
d. All the above
18. If land falling under the area of a Regional Plan is assessed under Maharashtra Land and Revenue Code, the owner of the land has to seek approval for construction of any structure on that land from:
a. Collector
b. Regional Planning Board
c. Municipal Corporation
d. No approval is required
19. According to the Special Economic Zones Act 2005, the minimum requirement of contiguous land for a multi-product SEZ in North-Eastern States is:
a. 500 hectares
b. 200 hectares
c. 1000 hectares
d. 100 hectares
20. As per Maharashtra Land Revenue Code the land revenue assessed by the Collector is fixed for the maximum period of:
a. 99 years
b. 30 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
21. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Panchayats receive funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.
b. The enactment of the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992 bestows constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI)s
c. Panchayats receive funds as local body grant as recommended by the Central and state finance Commissions
d. All the Above
22. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, permission is to be obtained for which of the following:
a. Reconstruction of principal staircase or to alter its position
b. Repair and maintenance of the exterior wall
c. Construction of parapet of 1.5 m. or less in height
d. Reconstruction of portions damaged by natural calamity according to the earlier specification
23. X mortgages a house of the value of Rs. 1, 00,000 to Y for Rs. 50,000. Afterwards, Y buys the house from X. Stamp duty is payable on sale deed is :
a. Rs. 1,00,000 less the amount of stamp duty already paid for the mortgage
b. Rs. 1,00,000
c. Rs 1,50,000
d. Rs 50,000
24. According to the MR&TP Act 1966, for developing a New Town on the area designated in Regional Plan the New Area Development Authority can acquire any land:
a. Within the area designated as the site of the new town
b. Adjacent to the area designated for the new town
c. Whether adjacent to that area or not, but required for provision of amenities for the new town
d. All the above
25. Which of the following does NOT have the status of Planning Authority in Maharashtra?
a. CIDCO
b. MIDC
c. Airports Authority of India
d. SRA
26. Estimate of the price that is likely to be obtained if a property were to be sold in the market is termed as :
a. Cost
b. Value
c. Worth
d. None of the above
27. Valuation made under the provisions of enabling legislation and for the purposes and requirements under which the valuation is to be made is termed as:
a. Statutory Valuation
b. Non statutory Valuation
c. Consent Valuation
d. Residual Valuation
28. The valuation of a property is done for the purposes of :
a. Acquisition
b. Sale/Purchase
c. Mortgage
d. All the above
29. The highest estimated price that a buyer would pay and a seller would accept for a property in an open and competitive market and where both the parties make informed choices without compulsion is called :
a. Market Value
b. Lease Value
c. Speculated Value
d. Purchase Price
30. Which of the following characteristics results in high demand of a landed property :
a. Transferability
b. Marketability
c. Productivity
d. All the above
31. Appropriateness of the method of valuation depends on :
a. Purpose of valuation
b. Type of Property
c. Availability of relevant data
d. All the above
32. Which of the following methods of valuation is best suited for undeveloped land with latent value after development :
a. Residual Method
b. Replacement cost approach
c. Belting Method
d. Cost Method
33. Which method of valuation assumes that the value of some properties will be related to the profit or annual return which can be made from their use?
a. Profit Method
b. Belting Method
c. Contractors Method
d. Comparative Method
34. Which of the following factors need to be considered while adopting Comparative Method of Valuation?
a. Property market is heterogeneous
b. It is volatile
c. Adequate Availability of details of recent transactions in the same area
d. All the above
35. Which method of valuation is generally used for those properties which are not bought and sold in the market and valuation is done for technical or accounts purposes only?
a. Residual Method
b. Developmental Method
c. Contractor’s Method
d. Comparative Method
36. Belting method of valuation is generally practiced when:
a. The building is of public use and is not salable in the market
b. The plot size is big and has less frontage and more depth
c. Information available on transaction of properties in the same area is weak
d. When the real estate market is volatile
37. Best method suited to valuation for a Church, which is a specialized property, will be:
a. Development Method
b. Income Capitalization Method
c. Contractors Method
d. All the above
38. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, future value of Rs. 100/- invested at present, after two years, will be:
a. INR 120
b. INR 121
c. INR 122
d. INR 125
39. In case of leasehold property, the value of the lessee’s interest in the property is:
a. maximum at the beginning of the lease period
b. minimum at the beginning of the lease period
c. remains constant throughout the period
d. maximum at the end of the lease period
40. The Development method of valuation is also called as :
a. Profit Method
b. Residual Method
c. Belting Method
d. Contractors Method
41. Indicator of estimated rental value of a property, which expresses the ratio between gross scheduled income and its price, is called :
a. Gross Rent Multiplier
b. Capitalization Rate
c. Capital Asset Pricing
d. Ratable Value
42. Which of the following, in respect of a rented property, are considered as Landlord’s outgoings?
a. Repairs
b. Insurance
c. Rates and Taxes
d. All the above
43. The factors affecting the rental value of a property are:
a. Location
b. Age
c. Floor
d. All the above
44. The sum which needs to be invested at the present time, at given rate of interest in order to accumulate Rs 1 by the end of the given period of time” is termed as:
a. Present value of Rs 1/-
b. Remuneration Fund
c. Annual sinking fund
d. Outgoing Fund
45. A purchaser may view property transaction from the position of :
a. social and commercial benefits, if he / she prefers to use it
b. annual return from the investment made
c. selling at a higher price at a later date d. all above
46. As per Land Acquisition Act 1894, which of the following is NOT taken into account while computing compensation?
a. Affected person compelled to change his residence or place of business
b. Urgency of acquisition
c. Loss of standing crop
d. Adverse effects on other properties of affected person.
47. Within how many days of preliminary notification, affected persons can raise objection to the land acquisition?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 180 days
48. In case land acquisition is withdrawn under section 48 of LA Act ,
a. No compensation is to be paid
b. Compensation for damage suffered is to be paid
c. Compensation only for 50% of the total damage is to be paid
49. According Section 8(1) of Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011, a committee headed by Chief secretary has to examine the proposal of land acquisition, if the land to be acquired is equal to or more than :
a. 100 hectares
b. 100 acres
c. 50 acres
d. 50 hectares
50. According to the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011, consent of how many affected families is essential for land acquisition for transfer to a private company for a public private partnership project t?
a. one-third
b. two-fifths
c. four-fifths
d. one-half
