MPSC Superintendent-Assistant Police Commissioner [Motor Trnasport], Gr-A Screening Test-2014 Question Paper

MPSC Superintendent-Assistant Police Commissioner [Motor Trnasport], Gr-A Screening Test-2014 Question Paper

1. Which of the following elements increases the corrosion resistance of steel?

(1) Chromium and Nickel

(2) Cobalt and Manganese

(3) Aluminium

(4) Zinc

2. How thermo-electric projects generate electricity?

(1) By heating one junction of a thermo-couple

(2) By cooling one junction of a thermo-couple

(3) By heating or cooling one junction of a thermo-couple

(4) None of these

3. Who formulated the science of diagnosis based on accurate description of the symptoms of various diseases?

(1) Robert Boyle

(2) Aristotle

(3) Hippocrates

(4) None of these

4. Select the correct sentence:

(1) Brass is an alloy of copper and iron.

(2) Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

(3) Brass is an alloy of copper and nickel.

(4) Brass is an alloy of copper and tin.

5. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Magnetic lines of force start from South Pole and end on North Pole

(2) No two magnetic lines of force can intersect each other.

(3) Magnetic lines of force are crowded where magnetic field is weak.

(4) Magnetic lines of force are far from each other where magnetic field is strong.

6. Ultrasonic waves have been found very useful for dental cutting because

(1) They made the cutting almost painless

(2) They cut the hard material very easily

(3) They do not require any mechanical device for cutting purpose

(4) All of the above

7. The time period of an earth’s satellite in circular orbit is independent of

(1) The mass of the satellite

(2) Radius of its orbit

(3) Both the mass and radius of the orbit

(4) None of the above

8. The most successful and widely used application of laser in medicine is in______.

(1) Cancer treatment

(2) Eye surgery

(3) Cosmetic application

(4) Military applications

9. Influenza virus is also called as_______.

(1) H₅N₁ Virus

(2) H₁N₅ Virus

(3) H₅N₇ Virus

(4) H₁N₇ Virus

10. Who revolutionized telecommunication sector in India?

(1) Sam Pitroda

(2) Pramod Mahajan

(3) P.V. Narsimha Rao

(4) None of the above

11. India’s first post office savings bank ATM was inaugurated in

(1) Bangalore

(2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai

(4) New Delhi

12. India’s first electric bus has been launched in________.

(1) Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Bangalore

(4) Pondicherry

13. During the Lok Sabha elections 2014 the Election Commission roped in_________ as a National Icon.

(1) Aamir Khan

(2) Amitabh Bachchan

(3) Salman Khan

(4) Shahrukh Khan

14. Which is the first Indian state to make the NOTA (None Of The Above) option available on the electronic voting machines during the local self government elections for the voters?

(1) Gujarat

(2) Kerala

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Maharashtra

15. Five Indian languages have been reinstated in the school curriculum of_______.

(1) Nepal

(2) South Africa

(3) Afghanistan

(4) Japan

16. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Iraq has majority of Sunni Muslims

(b) The ISIS is led by Sunni Muslims

(c) Iran has a majority of Shia Muslims

(d) Saddam Hussain was a Sunni Muslim

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

17. _________ police have launched free-sms helpline for women travelling alone.

(1) Mumbai

(2) Pune

(3) Aurangabad

(4) Nagpur

18. In which countries voting is compulsory for voters?

(a) Australia

(b) Argentina

(c) Brazil

(d) Canada

(1) Only (a), (b), (d)

(2) Only (a),(c), (d)

(3) Only (a), (b), (c)

(4) Only (b), (c), (d)

19. Which scheme has been started by Maharashtra Government for the education of children in Madarsas?

(1) Maulana Azad Madarsa Modernisation Scheme

(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Madarsa Modernisation Scheme

(3) Dr. Zakir Hussain Madarsa Modernisation Scheme

(4) Sir Sayyad Ahrnad Madarsa Modernisation Scheme

20. The Ebota Virus Disease outbreaks occur primarily in the________ continent.

(1) Asian

(2) African

(3) European

(4) South American

21. Which of the following is an indicator of performance of the commercial banks?

(1) Profitability

(2) Productivity

(3) Financial stability

(4) All the above

22. Which of the following was the main aim of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Bill introduced in the year 2000?

(1) To promote micro-economic stability

(2) To promote macro-economic stability

(3) To improve balance of payments position

(4) To control inflation

23. Which of the following is a part of the invisibles under service exports and imports?

(1) Insurance

(2) Travel

(3) Banking and brokerage services

(4) All the above

24. Who is authorized to appoint the auditor of Government company?

(1) Controller and Auditor General of India

(2) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(3) Comptroller and Auditor General of State

(4) None of the above

25. In connection with the Seventh Five Year Plan, consider the following:

(a) It gave priority to increasing agricultural production

(b) It induced increasing privatization

(c) It aimed at raising efficiency in manufacturing sector

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

26. In India, exports of primary products have failed to increase satisfactorily on account of:

(a) Low income-elasticity of consumer demand

(b) Agricultural protectionism pursued by many developed countries

(c) High income-elasticity of consumer demand

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

27. With reference to auditing consider the following:

(a) Audit of purchase of stores is similar to audit of expenditure

(b) The CAG has right to conduct supplementary audit

(c) The CAG also conducts audit of private companies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

28. In connection with internet banking, consider the following:

(a) Internet banking is a product of e-commerce

(b) Internet banking enables customers to open accounts, pay bills and know about balance

(c) Internet banking is also called on-line banking

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

29. Which of the following objectives are included in the guiding principles of India’s Five Year Plans?

(1) Achievement of economic growth

(2) Providing employment facilities

(3) Self-reliance and social justice

(4) All the above

30. Which of the following is not a function of the Central Co-operative Bank?

(1) To provide finance to the commercial banks

(2) To establish co-operation between primary co-operative credit societies and state co-operative banks

(3) To solve the problems of co-operative credit societies

(4) To perform all basic commercial banking functions

31. The average temperature on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 27°C. The average temperature on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 28°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 29°C. what was the temperature on Monday?

(1) 24°C

(2) 25°C

(3) 26°C

(4) 27°C

32. Select the appropriate group of digits for the blank.

348269, 79628, 16826,_______ , 1382, 428

(1) 8862

(2) 7826

(3) 7628

(4) 8826

33. Persons A, B, C, D and E are residing in a colony and their houses are in one row. Following is the information about location of the houses.

(I) E’s house is not at the right end of the row

(II) B does not reside at the left extreme of the row

(III) D’s house is adjacent to the right hand side of A’s house and left hand side of Cs house

To know who resides in the extreme left end house which of the statements are sufficient/ insufficient?

(1) (I) and (II) are sufficient

(2) (II) and (III) are sufficient

(3) (I), (II) and (III) are sufficient

(4) (I), (I) and (III) are insufficient

34. In the following number series which one of the first four numbers is odd?

35, 7, 31.1, 14.7, 27.2, 22.4,?,?, 19.4, 37.8

(1) 23.3 and 30.1

(2) 21.3 and 28.1

(3) 22.4 and 27.2

(4) 20.9 and 26.00

35. In the following number series which one of the first four numbers is odd?

444, 218, 108, 52, 24, 10

(1) 444

(2) 218

(3) 108

(4) 52

36. Select appropriate option to replace question mark

7826961 is to 61619

3864987 is to 81879

therefore 7958279 is to ?

(1) 72292

(2) 72229

(3) 92529

(4) 92229

37. A train completes a journey with few stoppages in between for crossing trains moving in opposite direction. Due to this average speed of the train is 45 km per hour. If the train does not stop anywhere for crossing, it would complete the journey at an average speed of 60 km per hour. On an average how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey ?

(1) 20 minutes per hour

(2) 22.5 minutes per hour

(3) 15 minutes per hour

(4) 10 minutes per hour

38. Six faces of a cube are labeled A to F, each face carrying different alphabet. The following statements describe this cube.

(I) Face A is opposite the Face C

(II) Faces B and E are opposite to each other

(III) Face D is between Face B and E

(IV) Faces A and F are adjacent to each other

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Faces A and B are adjacent to each other

(2) Face F is between B and D

(3) Face D is between C and F

(4) All the above are correct statements

39. Analyze the set of given statements and select most logical sequence of premises and conclusions :

(P) All elephants laugh

(Q) All cats laugh

(R) Some cats climb trees

(S) All elephants cannot climb trees

(T) All elephants are cats

(U) All elephants are carnivores

(1) (Q), (T), (P)

(2) (P), (Q), (T)

(3) (S), (T), (R)

(4) (T), (R), (Q)

40. The top set of six numbers has a relationship to the set of six numbers below. The two sets of the six boxes on the left have the same relationship as two sets of six boxes on the right.

Which of the numbers should therefore replace question marks ?

15	21	23	87	41	30
7	5	8	19	10	9

 

19	34	79	25	44	53
?	?	?	?	?	?

11

9

20

11

13

14

9

11

14

13

20

12

    (1)

    (2)

 

(3)

11

9

19

11

13

14

 

(4)

9

19

11

13

14

11

 

41. According to the provisions of Factories Act, no female child shall be required to work in any factory except______.

(1) between 7.00 am to 6.00 pm

(2) between 8.00 am to 7.00 pm

(3) between 9.00 am to 6.00 pm

(4) between 7.00 pm to 8.00 am

42. How old Motor Vehicle other than multi-axle vehicle is allowed for the purpose of National permit ?

(1) Eleven years

(2) Twelve years

(3) Fifteen years

(4) None of the above

43. How many minimum number of workers should there be in any factory to require it to have a well equiped ambulance

room ?

(1) 251

(2) 101

(3) 1001

(4) 501

44. Who is allowed to drive a goods carriage carrying dangerous or hazardous goods under the Central Motor Vehicle Rules,

1989 ?

(1) The one who has at least 10th passing certificate

(2) The one who has at least 12th passing certificate

(3) The one who has Degree certificate of any Indian University

(4) The one who has the ability to read and write at least one Indian language out of those specified in Schedule VII of Constitution and English

45. Driver of a road-roller is exempted from the provisions of_______.

(1) Section 3(1)

(2) Section 3

(2) (3) Section 4(1)

(4) Section 4(2)

46. Are police officers authorized to book cases of overloading of vehicles ?

(1) Yes, they are authorized

(2) No, they are not authorized

(3) Any officer has the power to do so

(4) (1) and (3) both

47. 57. What is the maximum number of passengers excluding the driver allowed in any motor cab for hire ?

(1) four

(2) six

(3) eight

(4) none of the above

48. When can an application be made for renewal of certificate of registration for motor vehicle, other than for a transport

vehicle ?

(1) Not earlier than 30 days before the date of expiry

(2) Not earlier than 60 days before the date of expiry

(3) Not earlier than 90 days before the date of expiry

(4) Not earlier than 120 days before the date of expiry

49. What is the minimum educational qualification required for grant of conductor’s licence as per the provisions of Maharashtra Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 ?

(1) Passed Seventh Standard Examination

(2) Passed Eighth Standard Examination

(3) Passed Ninth Standard Examination

(4) Passed Secondary School Certificate Examination

50. What is the minimum educational qualification required for driving a transport vehicle under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 ?

(1) Driver shall be 4th class pass

(2) Driver shall be 7th class pass

(3) Driver shall be 5th class pass

(4) Driver shall be 10th class pass

51. In case of a Motor Cab the tourist permit becomes invalid when the vehicle completes its life of :

(1) 9 years

(2) 8 years

(3) 16 years

(4) 10 years

52. According to the provisions of Factories Act 1948, who is an Adolescent ?

(1) A person above 18 years

(2) A person between 14 and 15 years

(3) A person between 15 and 18 years

(4) None of the above

53. The frictional resistance at the sleeve of a governor :

(1) increases sensitivity of governor

(2) decreases sensitivity of governor

(3) does not affect sensitivity of governor

(4) none of the above

54. Ratio of fin heat transfer rate to the heat transfer rate that would exist without fin is called________.

(1) Fin efficiency

(2) Fin effectiveness

(3) Fin performance

(4) Fin output

55. Maximum shear stress theory is used for :

(1) ductile materials

(2) brittle materials

(3) elastic materials

(4) plastic materials

56. Ratio of sensible heat to latent heat energy absorbed during liquid-vapour phase change is called______.

(1) Jakob Number

(2) Lewis Number

(3) Prandtl Number

(4) Schmidt Number

57. The following profiles of gears satisfy the law of gearing :

(1) conjugate profiles of mating teeth

(2) involute profiles of mating teeth

(3) cycloidal profiles of mating teeth

(4) all of the above

58. A vapour which is not about to condense is_______.

(1) Saturated

(2) Superheated

(3) Sub cooled

(4) None of these

59. Skidding of a vehicle can be avoided by using :

(1) Vehicle Dynamics Control System

(2) Antilock brake system

(3) Electronic brake force diskibution system

(4) All of the above

60. Which of the following is an example of SI engine combustion chamber ?

(a) indirect injection with swirl type

(b) direct injection open valve type

(c) hemispherical type

(d) bath tub type

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

61. At high altitudes, the automotive carburetor should :

(1) increase the richness of mixture

(2) decrease the richness of mixture

(3) not change the richness of mixture

(4) stop functioning

62. Out of following, which factors influence detonation in LC. engines ?

(a) density of air

(b) spark advance

(c) mixture strength

(d) amount of olefins in the fuel

(1) only (b)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a),(b), (c) and (d)

63. When the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at the spark plug, the condition is called :

(1) rumble

(2) preignition

(3) ignition

(4) detonation

64. Following is/are correct firing order used in four cylinder engines :

(1) 1-3-4-2

(2) 1-2-4-3

(3) 1-2-4-3 and 1-3-4-2

(4) 1-4-3-2

65. The air resistance of a vehicle in motion :

(1) varies with speed of vehicle

(2) varies with square of speed of vehicle

(3) is independent of speed of vehicle

(4) varies with square root of speed of vehicle

66. Four wheel steering used on motor vehicle :

(1) reduces turning radius of vehicle

(2) reduces understeer gradient

(3) helps reduce tyre wear

(4) reduces turning effort on the part of driver

67. The speed of the rotors in the turbocharger may be of the order of :

(1) 10,00,000 rpm

(2) 1,00,000 rpm

(3) 10,000 rpm

(4) 1,000 rpm

68. A venturi in automotive carburettor :

(1) increases air velocity and lowers the pressure

(2) decreases air velocity and increases the pressure

(3) increases air velocity as well as pressure

(4) decreases air velocity as well as pressure

69. Following is used in order to regulate heat dissipitation by controlling the rate of coolant flow through radiator :

(1) pressure relief valve

(2) pressurized radiator cap

(3) thermostat

(4) vacuum relief valve

70. Automotive pollution control norm currently prevalent in metro cities of India is :

(1) Bharat 2

(2) Euro 2

(3) BS3

(4) BS4

71. Thermal efficiency of typical CI engine :

(1) is 100%

(2) is 70 – 80%

(3) is 10 – 20%

(4) is 25 – 35%

72. The vehicles before introducing in the market are required to be tested and certified by :

(1) Manufacturer himself

(2) Indian military

(3) ARAI

(4) RTOs

73. Following is a measure of ability of petrol fuel to bum without knocking :

(a) octane number

(b) index number

(c) cetane number

(d) fuel number

(1) only (c)

(2) only (a)

(3) only (b)

(4) either (a) or (c)

74. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Maximum torque and power are obtained at different speeds

(b) Maximum torque and power are obtained at single speed

(c) Maximum torque and power are obtained at any speed

(d) Maximum torque and power are independent of speed

(1) only (a)

(2) only (b)

(3) only (d)

(4) only (c)

75. A vehicle carries vertical load of 10000 N and uses wheel of 0.5 m radius. A torque of 800 N-m is applied to the wheel. Tractive effort available in this case is :

(1) 2000 N

(2) 1600 N

(3) 5000 N

(4) 400 N

76. The stabilizer bar in automotive suspension is used to :

(1) sustain the side loads

(2) overcome rolling tendency of a vehicle

(3) damp out vibrations

(4) increase the aesthetic appeal of a vehicle

77. Turbulence in combustion chamber of an engine :

(1) increases the speed of combustion process

(2) decreases the speed of combustion process

(3) doesn’t influence the speed of combustion process

(4) may increase or decrease the speed of combustion process

78. The phase which is not common in SI and CI combustion processes is :

(1) ignition delay

(2) rapid pressure rise or uncontrolled combustion

(3) mechanical controlled combustion

(4) after burning

79. Ignition timing of an automotive engine depends on :

(1) engine speed

(2) engine load

(3) engine temperature

(4) engine speed, load and temperature

80. Gas analyzers measure the gasses in units of :

(1) ppm

(2) rPm

(3) m³/sec

(4) mm³/sec

81. The part of combustion chamber where the end gasses are trapped in the narrow space formed between the cylinder-head and piston crown is called as :

(1) quench area

(2) squish

(3) turbulent area

(4) barrel

82. Use of intercooler in a turbocharger is justified provided the boost-pressure ratio :

(1) is less than 1 : 1

(2) is equal to 1 : 1

(3) is 1.6 : 1 or more

(4) is negative

83. The percent heat energy released from the combustion of fuel in an I.C. engine’s cooling system is around :

(1) 25 – 35%

(2) 10 – 15%

(3) 70 – 80%

(4) 50 – 60%

84. To produce a spark in an automotive engine, the voltage required is of the order of :

(1) 12 – 24 V

(2) 300 – 400 V

(3) 20000 – 30000 V

(4) 3000 V – 5000 V

85. Volumetric efficiency of an engine can be increased by :

(1) using turbo chargers

(2) increasing size of intake valves

(3) increasing intake manifold passages

(4) using any of the above options

86. The reference fuel used for measurement of cetane number of diesel fuel is :

(1) alpha – methyl – naphthalene

(2) n – heptane

(3) iso – octane

(4) heptamethylnonane