Home / Question Papers / MPSC Sales Inspector Main Examination 2017 – Paper – 2

MPSC Sales Inspector Main Examination 2017 – Paper – 2

MPSC Sales Inspector Main Examination 2017 – Paper – 2

  1. According to Census 2011, Beed district literacy rate was _________ %

(1) 71.53

(2) 73.53

(3) 72.53

(4) 74.58

  1. Aheri, Korchi, Mulchera and ____________ are the talukas of Gadchiroli district.

(1) Dhanora

(3) Jivati

(2) Pavani

(4) Goregaon

  1. During lava eruption, gases that escape out make cavities. The rocks with cavities in them are known as ________ rocks.

(1) Dyke

(2) Sill

(3) Amygdaloidal

(4) Batholith

  1. The ‘Ashtavinayak’ tourist places of Vidarbha are placed in which of the following districts by their respective numbers?

(1) Nagpur-3, Bhandara-2, Chandrapur-1, Wardha-1, Yavatmal-1

(2) Nagpur-3, Bhandara-1, Chandrapur-1, Wardha-2, Yavatmal-1

(3) Nagpur-3, Bhandara-1, Chandrapur-2, Wardha-1, Yavatmal-1

(4) Nagpur-3, Bhandara-1, Chandrapur-1, Wardha-1, Yavatmal-2

  1. Which district dosen’t have a boundary with Hingoli district?

(1) Beed

(2) Parbhani

(3) Nanded

(4) Washim

  1. _________ was the world’s first anti-dam movement.

(1) Bhimthadi Satyagraha

(2) Narmada Satyagraha

(3) Mulshi Satyagraha

(4) Chirner Satyagraha

  1. Who from the following said that the Indian railway was a Milking Cow for the British?

(1) Dadabhai Nauroji

(2) Pherozeshah Mehta

(3) Jagannath Shankar Sheth

(4) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

  1. _______ Newspaper was started by Ganpat Sakharam Patil in April 1888.

(1) Rashtramata

(2) Vichar Vaibhav

(3) Deenabandhu

(4) Deena Mitra

  1. In 1789, the beginning of newspapers in Maharashtra took place with which weekly?

(1) The Bengal Gazette

(2) The Bombay Herald

(3) The Telegraph

(4) The Bombay Times

  1. ‘Vital Vidhvansan’ was written by

(1) Gopalbaba Valangkar

(2) Shivram Janba Kamble

(3) Kisan Faguji Bansode

(4) Ganesh Akkaji Gavai

  1. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?

(1) The idea of a federation with a strong centre

(2) The method of Presidential election

(3) The Republic and the Idea of Justice

(4) Provisions concerning the suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency

  1. Which one of the following statements relating to the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ is not correct?

(1) The provision contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by court.

(2) The Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country.

(3) The Directive Principles are non-justifiable and hence cannot help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of law.

(4) It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making the law.

  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. The Constitution directs every state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to a linguistic minority community.
  3. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the state or receiving state aid, on grounds of only religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
  4. The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) c only

(4) None of these

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Article 262 empowers the Parliament to enact laws in order to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers.
  3. The Water Dispute Act, 1956 empowers the Central Government to set up a tribunal for the adjudication of the dispute relating to waters of inter-state rivers

Answer options:

(1) Statement a is correct

(2) Statement b is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

  1. Consider the following statements about the ‘Panchayat Raj’ committee in Maharashtra:
  2. It consists of not more than 29 members. (20 from the Legislative Assembly and 9 from the Legislative Council)
  3. It consists of not more than 25 members. (20 from the Legislative Assembly and 5 from the Legislative Council)
  4. Out of the 20 members to be nominated from the Legislative Assembly, two shall be from amongst the Scheduled Castes and two from the Scheduled Tribes.

Answer options:

(1) Only statement a is correct

(2) Only statement b is correct

(3) Statements a and c are correct

(4) Statements b and c are correct

  1. In the election of the President of India the value of the vote of _______ differs from one state to another.

(1) Member of Lok Sabha

(2) Member of Rajya Sabha

(3) Member of Legislative Assembly

(4) None of the above

  1. Select the correct statement/statements.
  2. The Governor of the state is elected by the President
  3. The Governor is removed by the process of impeachment.
  4. The Governor cannot hold any other office of profit.

Answer options:

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) c only

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Fundamental Duties were not provided in the original Constitution.
  3. Ten Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd amendment in 1976.
  4. The Eleventh Fundamental Duty was added in the Constitution by the 84th amendment in 2001.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) band c only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

  1. The Constitution of India gives the Right to Religious Freedom to all citizens. Ganpati Festival and Moharram appeared together. The administration laid down some restrictions on Ganpati Mandals and Tabut Mandals. This actions is
  2. against religious freedom.
  3. an encroachment on the religious freedom given by the Constitution.
  4. to protect the public order, morality and health. The Constitution has given the government powers to restrict these things. Hence, the action of the administration is correct.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) B only

(2) C only

(3) A and c only

(4) A and b only

  1. The Government of Maharashtra and the Central Government have a legal dispute. To solve the problem, the Government of Maharashtra has approached the Supreme Court. This dispute comes under the following jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: (1) Original Jurisdiction

(2) Appellate Jurisdiction

(3) Advisory Jurisdiction

(4) Power to Reconsider Previous Decisions

  1. Every public authority under the RTI Act, 2005, shall publish within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of this Act,
  2. the particulars of its organization, functions and duties.
  3. a directory of its officers and employees.
  4. the property particulars of its officers and employees.
  5. the names and designation and other particulars of the Public Information Officers

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and d only

(2) a, b and d only

(3) All of the above

(4) b and d only

  1. How many ‘schedules’ are there in the Right to Information Act, 2005?

(1) 9

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 7

  1. Who is entitled to apply to the Public Information Officer designated as such in every department as per the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

(1) Every citizen

(3) Corporate Body

(2) Foreigner

(4) All of the above

  1. The State Information Commission shall consist of
  2. The High Court Judge.
  3. The State Chief Information Commissioner.
  4. Such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding five as may be deemed necessary.
  5. Such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten as may be deemed necessary.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) b and d only

(4) a and d only

  1. The full from of the term ‘FAT’ used in computers is

(1) File Access Technology

(2) File Allocation Table

(3) File Application Technique

(4) All of the above

  1. What is URL?

(1) A software package used to cruise the World Wide Web (www)

(2) The address of a resource on the World Wide Web (www)

(3) The term used to describe Internet wizard

(4) A live chat program (unlimited real-time language)

  1. ‘Giggey’ defines community as

(1) Group of people who have something un-common

(2) Group of people who have something in common

(3) Group of different peoples

(4) None of these

  1. The terms ‘News Room’ and ‘Chat Room’ are related with following in relation with information technology.

(1) Schools

(2) Colleges

(3) Internet

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the following software’s is used to access and view sites on the world wide web ?

(1) Browser

(2) E-mail

(3) Chat

(4) None of the above

  1. Identify the most suitable statements applicable for ‘Hybrid’ computers

(1) It uses analog and digital technology.

(2) It has speed of analog and accuracy of digital

(3) It accepts analog and digital signals.

(4) All of the above

  1. B 2 C, C 2 C and B 2 B are types of

(1) E-mail

(2) e-cash

(3) e-commerce

(4) All of these

  1. India’s first collaborative online Encyclopedia of Educational content created by the learning communities is

(1) e-Kranti

(2) Vidyavahini

(3) Gyanpedia

(4) None of these

  1. The full form of ‘WAF” is

(1) Wireless Application Protocol

(2) Wireless Application Processor

(3) Wireless Application Practice

(4) Wireless Application Principle

  1. The standard set of rules and procedures for control of communication in a network is termed as

(1) Protocol

(2) Controller

(3) Processing

(4) None of the above

  1. Human Development Index (HDI) measures the average achievements in the following basic dimensions of development:
  2. A long and healthy life measured by life expectancy
  3. Knowledge measured by adult literacy rate
  4. A decent standard of living

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) b and c only

(4) a, b and c

  1. Which of the following is not the long term objective of the Planning Commission?

(1) To increase production

(2) Enhance concentration of economic power

(3) To achieve full employment

(4) To reduce inequalities of income and wealth

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The Motto of All India Radio is ‘Bahujana Hitaya: Bahujana Sukhaya’.
  3. One of the largest broadcasting organisations in the world in terms of the number of languages of broadcast is All India Radio. c. AIR originates programmes in 33 languages.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) c only

(4) a only

  1. Even though employment has been mentioned as one of the objectives of economic planning it has

(1) Never been accorded a high priority

(2) Accorded a high priority

(3) Given prime status

(4) None of the above

  1. India’s economic plans made conscious efforts for

(1) Reduction of inequalities

(2) Establishment of socialist society

(3) Creation of equal opportunities in the matters of education and employment

(4) All of the above

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Integrated Rural Development Programme aims at raising families above the poverty line by creating sustainable opportunities of self-employment.
  3. In Jawahar Gram Smridhi Yojana, preference is being given to SCIST families below the poverty line and physically challenged persons.
  4. Ganga Kalyan Yojana provides irrigation facilities through ground water sources to small and marginal farmers below the poverty line.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is not a feature of democratic socialism?

(1) Faith in democratic values

(2) A socialist society aims at removal of poverty

(3) A socialist society aims at reduction of inequalities

(4) Total abolition of private property

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The usual status indicates the unemployment status of a person during the entire year.
  3. The current weekly status indicates the unemployment status of a person one hour during a week.
  4. The current daily status indicates the unemployment status of a person during all the seven days in a week.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. If deprivation score is ______ percent or greater, the household is considered as multidimensionally poor.

(1) 20.33

(2) 50.33

(3) 40.33

(4) 33.3

  1. Which of the following connectivity was not considered in PURA Model?

(1) Physical connectivity

(2) Digital connectivity

(3) Economic connectivity

(4) Social connectivity

  1. The Planning Commission of India adopted the policy measures to remove regional disparities as below:
  2. Special area development programmes implemented for direct development of backward areas.
  3. State Bank of India to provide concessional finance for industrial projects located in backward areas.
  4. To promote private investments in backward areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a and c only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and b only

(4) b only

  1. Which of the following programmes aims to provide employment only to the rural poor?

(1) Self Employment for Educated Youth

(2) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY)

(3) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the following is not a non-conventional source of energy in India?

(1) Solar energy

(2) Agricultural waste

(3) Wind energy

(4) Tidal energy

  1. Which of the following is a cause of economic crisis in the early 1990s?

(1) The gross fiscal deficit rose up to 7.8 percent of GDP in 1991.

(2) The internal debt of the Central Government rose up to 49.7 percent of GDP in 1991.

(3) The burden of servicing of debt rose up to 22.0 percent of the total central government expenditure.

(4) All the above reasons

  1. Disinvestment of Public Sector is one of the main elements of Privatization. The disinvestment is undertaken to achieve which of the following objectives?
  2. To provide good customer service.
  3. To overcome political interference in managing the public sector industries.
  4. To overcome corruption in PSUs. d. To make effective use of proceeds from disinvestment.

Answer options:

(1) a and c only

(2) b only

(3) a, b and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. LPG Model has followed the IMF-World Bank prescription of

(1) Opening of public sector to private sector

(2) Facilitation to foreign direct investment

(3) Encouragement to more exports

(4) Stabilization and structural adjustment

  1. The National Highway Development Project (NHDP) deals with building high quality highways and the Pradhnn Mantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojana (PMBJP) deals with

(1) Building rural roads

(2) Connecting rural area to urban area

(3) Linking up major cities to highways

(4) Linking all important centres

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about WTO and the domestic subsidies?
  2. WTO bans domestic subsidies granted under Red Box.
  3. Amber Box subsidies are those subsidies that are not banned, but against which action can be taken.
  4. Agricultural support measures in the Blue Box are prohibited.

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b only

(4) b and c only

  1. According to result of PSEs in 2004-05, PSEs can show much better results in new economic environment, if

(1) Better autonomy is granted

(2) Bureaucratic control is reduced

(3) Private culture is infused in PSEs

(4) All of the above

  1. The reforms process while accelerating economic development should led to

(1) a higher rate of growth

(2) an enlargement of employment potential

(3) Reduction of population living below the poverty line

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is/are the challenges before the Indian economy?
  2. Mobilisation of resources
  3. Deveioping infrastructure
  4. Facing the WTO challenge d. Changing role of the state

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b and c only

(3) d only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following strategies was not adopted by MNCs to penetrate the Indian economy through FDI?

(1) Some foreign investors bought off existing local brands.

(2) Setting up new units through 100% investment.

(3) After joint venture foreign investors went on to set up parallel 100 percent subsidiaries in the same field.

(4) Some foreign investors initially opted for joint venture with Indian partners.

  1. Which of the following reasons is/are correct about lead for the capitalists all over the world to divert their capital from the rich nations to a nation like India?
  2. Attractive consumer market
  3. Brighter chances, of earning huge profits c. Liberalized policy of the Government d. Foreign capital inflow allowed by the Government

Answer options:

(1) a and d only

(2) b, c and d only

(3) c only

(4) a, b, c and d

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. According to the Foreign Trade Policy (2009-141, the objective of the Government is to double India’s share in global trade by 2020.
  3. The policy aims to achieve an annual export growth of 15 percent for two years, 2009-11.
  4. Minimum land requirement for SEZs is reduced.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and h only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following groups of countries is the highest exporter from India during 1960-61 to 1990-91?

(1) Developing nations

(2) Eastern European nations

(3) OECD (Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development)

(4) OPEC (Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries)

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Standard and Poor credit rating for India stands at BBB – with stable outlook.
  3. Moody’s credit rating for India was last set at Baa2 -with stable outlook.
  4. Fitch’s credit rating for India was last reported at BBB -with stable outlook.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Direct tax revenue of the Central Government is higher than indirect tax revenue during 2007-08 to 2011-12.

(2) Indirect tax revenue of the Central Government is higher than direct tax revenue during 2007-08 to 2011-12.

(3) Direct tax revenue of the Central Government is equal to indirect tax revenue during 2007-08 to 2011-12.

(4) None of the above

  1. Modern economists have developed the concept of functional finance. The origin of the term functional finance is attributed to

(1) J.M. Keynes

(2) A.C. Pigou

(3) A.P. Lerner

(4) Richard Musgrave

  1. Consider of the following statements with regard to the criteria of sustainability of Public debt:
  2. Debt should be zero at a specified period.
  3. Debt to GDP ratio at a future point of time should be reduced to a specified portion of today’s debt to GDP ratio.
  4. Debt to GDP ratio for the future may be fixed at today’s ratio.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme was introduced on 1st January 2013.
  3. In the beginning this scheme is implemented in 35 districts in India.
  4. The Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme is designed to reduce corruption and control expenditure.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(1) a and b only

(2) b only

(3) b and c only

(4) a only

  1. The programmes like Bharat Nirman, MNREGA and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) are examples of

(1) Capital expenditure

(2) Planned expenditure

(3) Non-planned expenditure

(4) Non-transfer expenditure

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the FRBM Act:
  2. The Central Government Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act was passed in 2004.
  3. Revenue deficit to fall to zero by March 2009.
  4. Fiscal deficit to be reduced to 3 percent of GDP by March 2009.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Impact of tax refers to

(1) Final money burden

(2) Indirect real burden

(3) Immediate real burden

(4) Immediate money burden

  1. Which of the following factors is/are not a part of revenue budget?
  2. Investment in shares
  3. Current consumption expenditure on commodities
  4. Transferable payments
  5. Current consumption expenditure on services

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b and c only

(3) c only

(4) a and d only

  1. Which of the following is not treated as development expenditure?

(1) Expansion of developmental activities

(2) Expenditure on subsidies

(3) Expenditure on interest payments

(4) Expenditure on social services

  1. The Tax Reforms Committee, 1991 was constituted under the chairmanship of

(1) Shri Vijay Kelkar

(2) Raja J. Chelliah

(3) L.K. Jha

(4) M. Govinda Rao

  1. Government expenditure on maintenance of defence establishment is an example of

(1) Developmental expenditure

(2) Non-developmental or unproductive expenditure

(3) Capital expenditure

(4) Productive expenditure

  1. Fiscal deficit = Revenue receipts + _____ – Total expenditure

(1) Capital receipts

(2) Revenue receipts

(3) Budget deficit

(4) Government market borrowings

  1. Which of the following is/are the latest measure(s) introduced by the RBI to influence liquidity in the financial system?
  2. MMMF (Money Market Mutual Fund)
  3. Reverse Repo
  4. LAF (Liquidity Adjustment Facility)
  5. MSF (Marginal Standing Facility)

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b and d only

(3) b and c only

(4) d only

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The Reserve Bank of India plays a vital role in the fiscal management of the states.
  3. The important function of the RBI is to help the states to raise market loan.
  4. The RBI has been organizing the State Finance Secretaries forum twice a year at its headquarters in Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which one of the following statements in respect of Shri Ram Nath Kovind is correct?

(1) He has become India’s President.

(2) He is the second President from Uttar Pradesh.

(3) He is a commerce and law graduate.

(4) After the formation of the NDA government in 1998, he became private secretary to the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

  1. Consider the following statements about the 101th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016:
  2. It introduced the GST.
  3. It amended the Seventh Schedule.
  4. It omitted Article 268-A.
  5. It inserted new Articles 246-A, 269-A, 279-A.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b and c only

(3) c and d only

(4) All of the above

  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) ‘National Voters’ Day’ is celebrated every year in India on January 25.

(2) ‘State Voters’ Day’ is celebrated every year in Maharashtra on July 7.

(3) January 25 is the foundation day of the Election Commission of India.

(4) None of these

  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) India will host the 2018 Women’s World Boxing Championship.

(2) India will host the 2021 Men’s World Boxing Championship.

(3) The Men’s Boxing Championship will be the first event to be hosted in India.

(4) None of the above

  1. Who has been bestowed with the highest peace time gallantry decoration ‘Ashok Chakra’ on the 68th Republic Day of India?

(1) Nirbhay Singh

(2) Harpreet Sandhu

(3) Hangpan Dada

(4) Kapil Yadav

  1. The world’s biggest cricket stadium will come up in which state of India?

(1) West Bengal

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Gujarat

(4) Karnataka

  1. Which state has become the country’s first state to lay down the minimum educational qualifications for contesting elections to village cooperative societies?

(1) Maharashtra

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(4) Gujarat

  1. Identify the correct statement with reference to Maharashtra.

(1) For education of rural girls a scheme named ‘Umed’ is being implemented.

(2) Under the scheme of ‘Manodhairya’, assistance of P 50 thousand to P 5 lakh is given to victims.

(3) The brand ambassador of ‘Mazi Kanya Bhagyashree’ is a Hindi film actress Bhagyashree.

(4) None of these

  1. Who received the Maharashtra Bhushan Award?
  2. Jayant Narlikar
  3. Anil Kakodkar
  4. Nanasaheb Dharmadhikari
  5. Avinash Dharmadhikari

Answer Options:

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b and c only

(3) a, b and d only

(4) All of the above

  1. The beginning of the second phase of _____ Amut Aahar Yojana’ has been launched in August 2016 in Maharashtra.

(I) Bharat Ratna A.B. Vajpayee

(2) Bharat Ratna Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(3) Shyama Prasad Mukhe jee

(4) Pt. Deendayal Upadhyaya

  1. A five-digit number is formed using digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repeating any one of them. Select the option that indicates the sum of all such possible numbers.

(1) 6666666

(2) 6666660

(3) 6666600

(4) 6666000

  1. How many seconds will a 500 metre long train take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3 km/hr in the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?

(1) 25

(2) 30

(3) 45

(4) 40

  1. A man walks 15 km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 13 km, he turns to the left and walks 25 km. In which direction is he from the starting place now?

(1) South-west

(2) North-east

(3) North

(4) South

  1. Pointing to a photograph Anuradha says to Shashi, the girl in the photo is the second daughter of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger sister. How is the girl in the photograph related to Anuradha ?

(1) Sister

(2) Daughter

(3) Sister-in-law

(4) None of these

  1. Samir is taller than Kabir, Kabir is taller than Amir, Sudhir is taller than Shishir, Shishir is taller than Kabir. Who is the shortest among them?

(1) Samir

(2) Shishir

(3) Amir

(4) Kabir

  1. Veena has a collection of coloured marbles. She says, “If I divide the marbles into two unequal numbers, then 56 times the difference between the two numbers equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers.” Select the option which indicates the total number of marbles Veena has.

(1) There is no definite answer

(2) 56

(3) 10

(4) 26

  1. There are seven cars with different colours displayed in a showroom. The car in indigo colour is standing between yellow and violet coloured cars. The green car is between red and white coloured cars. The orange coloured car is next to the yellow coloured car, but it is not near to the red or violet cars. Then, which of the following conclusions is/are definitely true?
  2. The yellow coloured car will always be between the indigo and orange coloured cars.
  3. Either the red coloured or white coloured car will always be to the next of the violet coloured car.
  4. The white coloured car will always be to the next of the orange coloured car.

Answer Options:

(1) None but a

(2) All

(3) All except a

(4) Both b and c


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