MPSC Maharashtra Engineering Services Preliminary Examination -2018 – Question Paper

MPSC Maharashtra Engineering Services Preliminary Examination -2018 – Question Paper

1. Identify the correct sentence.
2. She got up when the alarm clock went off.
3. Erika had dropped her bag while she was getting into her car.
4. It was the first time I’d talked to Ella outside the office.
5. She will be taking up her place at University in October.

(1) a and c

(2) b and d

(3) a, c and d

(4) b, c and d

2. Choose the appropriate pair to fill in the blanks in both the given sentences.
3. Measles is highly _________
4. England is the only country ________ to Wales.

(1) Contagious, contagious

(2) Contiguous, contagious

(3) Contagious, contiguous

(4) Contiguous, contiguous

3. Complete the sentence with who, which, whom or what.

_______ of them broke the window?

(1) Who

(2) Whom

(3) What

(4) Which

4. Choose the alternative containing the correct sequence of words to fill in the blanks in the given sentences.
5. ____ was a big audience for the concert that night.
6. ____ is no answer.
7. ____ is a car outside.

(1) There, It, It

(2) There, There, There

(3) There, There, It

(4) It, It, It

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 5 to 9:

If from a hilltop you could watch a panther stalking his prey, he would offer a most interesting spectacle. You would see him taking advantage of every bush, of every tree trunk and of every stone behind which to take cover. He can flatten himself to the ground in an amazing fashion. His colouration renders him invisible, unless you have the keenest eyesight. I once watched one through a pair of binoculars and was amazed at the really wonderful sense of woodcraft the panther had. Then comes the final rush. In a couple of bounds and with lightning speed, he reaches his prey.

5. Give the meaning of the idiom ‘to take advantage of’.

(1) Profit selfishly by exploiting

(2) Put to good use

(3) None of these

(4) All of these

6. What is the word for the phenomena ‘his colouration renders him invisible’?

(1) Concentration

(2) Commouflagne

(3) Configuration

(4) Camouflage

7. What is the panther doing in the story?

(1) Hiding

(2) Stalking

(3) Rushing

(4) Flattening

8. With the help of which instrument did the writer watch the panther?

(1) Spectacle

(2) Binoculars

(3) Tree trunk

(4) None of these

9. How was the panther stalking his prey?

(1) Hiding behind the tree trunk

(2) Taking advantage of every bush

(3) Flatten himself to the ground

(4) All of these

10. Which of the following district/districts does not have 100% geographical area in the Godavari river basin?

(1) Aurangabad and Beed

(2) Latur

(3) Jalna and Parbhani

(4) Hingoli and Nanded

11. According to 2011 Census, ______ and ______ districts have less than 15% of their population living in urban areas.

(1) Gadchiroli and Sindhudurg

(2) Gadchiroli and Gondia

(3) Gondia and Sindhudurg

(4) Gondia and Washim

12. Consider the following statements:
13. The Government of India announced a National Agriculture Policy on July 28, 2000.
14. The Government of India announced a New Intestinal Policy on July 24, 1991.
15. The Government of India announced the New Computer Policy in 1984.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) Only c

(4) None of these

13. Consider the following statements:
14. The National Planning Committee was set up in October 1945 under the Chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
15. Planning Commission was set up in March 1950.
16. The National Development Council was set up in August 1952

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and c

(4) All of the above

14. Consider the following statements:
15. Indian Banks need to lend 40 percent to the priority sector every year
16. Foreign Banks have to fulfil only 32 percent priority sector lending target.
17. All Indian Banks do not have to follow the compulsory target of priority sector lending.

Which of the statemenus given above is/are correct?

(1) a and b

(2) Only c

(3) b and c

(4) None of these

15. Liquidity Adjustment facility by RBI allows
16. RBI to manage market liquidity on daily basis.
17. Transmit interest rate signals to the market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only a

(2) Only b

(3) Both a and b

(4) None of the above

16. India’s Human Development Index Number was ______ in the year 2011.

(1) 134

(2) 120

(3) 140

(4) 130

17. India’s First Women’s Bank was established in which year’s budget?

(1) 2010- 11

(2) 2012- 13

(3) 2013 – 14

(4) 2015- 16

18. If the Panchayat Samiti is immersed, then how long will be the tenure of the newly elected Panchayat Samiti?

(1) 6 months

(2) 2 ½ months

(3) One year

(4) As much as the remaining tenure of the immersed Panchayat Samiti

19. For what reason were the ‘Run for Laadli Half Marathon Competitions’ organized?

(1) To cause awareness amongst the people about women protection

(2) To cause awareness about children and their better future

(3) To cause awareness about little girls for their better future

(4) To cause love for physically handicapped people

20. Which of the following became the first State in India to pass a law to protect journalists from attack?

(1) Goa

(2) Haryana

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Madhya Pradesh

21. Which border of India will be sealed by 2018 as announced by the Home Minister of India?

(1) India – Pakistan

(2) India – Nepal

(3) India – Bangladesh

(4) India – Sri Lanka

22. According to year 2017 report of ‘The International Institute of Gutmaker’ and ‘Indian Institute of Population Sciences’, how many women died because of abortion in every year in India?

(1) 1OLakh

(2) 20Lakh

(3) 25 Lakh

(4) 30Lakh

23. Union Minister of Human Resource Development Shri Prakash Javadekar has launched Portal and mobile app for RUSA. What is the meaning of RUSA?

(1) Rajkiya Uchch Shikshan Abhiyan

(2) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

(3) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shikshan Andolan

(4) Regional Uchch Shiksha Abhiyan

24. GST was introduced as which Amendment Act?

(1) 101

(2) 108

(3) 120

(4) 106

25. Which of the following is most harmful for ozone depletion?

(1) Chlorine and nitrogen

(2) Carbon monoxide

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Sulphur dioxide

26. Which movement in a State of India was lead under the leadership of Sundarlal Bahuguna?

(1) Chipko Revolution – Tamil Nadu

(2) Silent Valley Revolution – Kerala

(3) Narmada Bachao Andolan – Madhya Pradesh

(4) Appiko Revolution – Karnataka

27. Who was selected as the President of Constitution Committee of India on 11th December 1946?

(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(2) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

(3) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha

(4) Pumshottam Das Tandon

28. Arrange the following institutions in their chronological order:
29. Chhatrapati Shivaji College, Satara
30. Maharaja Sayajirao High School, Satara
31. Silver Jubilee Rural Training College, Satara
32. Chhatrapati Shahu Boarding House, Satara

(1) a,b,c,d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) d, b, c, a

(4) d, a, c, b

29. When a body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then each force is proportional to the ________ angle between the other two forces.

(1) cos

(2) sin

(3) tan

(4) cot

30. Complete determination of resultant force of non-concurrent forces is
31. determination of magnitude.
32. determination of direction.
33. determination of point on its line of action.

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only a and c

(3) a, band c

(4) None of these

31. D – Alembert’s principle states that if a rigid body is acted upon by system of forces, this system of forces may be reduced to a single resultant force whose _________ may be found out by the method of graphic statics.

(1) Magnitude

(2) Direction

(3) Line of action

(4) Magnitude, direction and line of action

32. In order to study the dynamic response of a body, it is important to locate the body’s

(1) Colour

(2) Emissivity

(3) Centre of mass

(4) None of these

33. The component of the resultant linear impulse along any direction is equal to

(1) Zero.

(2) change in the component of momentum in that direction.

(3) Change in the component of momentum in opposite direction.

(4) None of these

34. in technique used to reduce a coplanar or parallel force system to a single resultant force, the resultant force is equal to

(1) Sum of all forces in the system.

(2) Sum of all positive forces in the system.

(3) Sum of all negative forces in the system.

(4) None of these

35. A concurrent force system is one in which the lines of action of all the forces intersect at a common point 0, then the force system produces

(1) No moment about this point.

(2) Moment about this point.

(3) Both (1) and (2) are produced.

(4) None of these

36. Parallelogram law of forces states that if two forces acting simultaneously at a point be represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of parallelogram, their resultant may be represented in magnitude and direction by

(1) Longer side of the other two sides.

(2) Shorter side of the other two sides.

(3) Diagonal of the parallelogram which passes through their points of intersection.

(4) Diagonal of the parallelogram which does not pass through their point of intersection.

37. In friction, friction force F is termed as _______ when sliding occurs at the contacting surface.

(1) Kinetic frictional force

(2) Kinematic frictional force

(3) Static frictional force

(4) None of these

38. The negative ratio of the relative velocities of two colliding bodies after and before collision is called as

(1) Coefficient of Restitution

(2) Coefficient of Friction

(3) Elastic Collision.

(4) Inelastic Collision

39. An automobile of mass 1000 kg moving at a velocity 54 km ph, moves along a sag. This sag is a part of a circle of 15 m radius. What is the reaction between the automobile and road while travelling at the lowest part of sag?

(1) 24.8 kN

(2) 248 kN

(3) 2480 kN

(4) 24800 kN

40. The required minimum compressive strength of building bricks as recommended by IS 1077-1957and 1970 is

(1) 140 kg/cm²

(2) 105 kg/cm²

(3) 70 kg/cm²

(4) 35 kg/cm²

41. The minimum compressive strength for rapid hardening portland cement after 72 hours should be

(1) 18 N/mm²

(2) 28 N/mm²

(3) 24N/mm²

(4) None of these

42. The maximum settlement for the isolated foundation on clayey soils should be limited to

(1) 65mm

(2) 25 mm

(3) 40 mm

(4) 100 mm

43. As per IS 1893 – 2002, Zone I shown in ‘Seismic Zones of India’ map corresponds to

(1) Maximum intensity I

(2) Maximum intensity III

(3) Maximum intensity V

(4) Maximum intensity VII

44. Which of the following is a disadvantage of framed structures?

(1) Flexibility in planning

(2) Speed of construction

(3) Economy

(4) Span length

45. What is fineness modulus of course sand?

(1) 2.9 – 3.2

(2) 2.4 – 3.0

(3) 1.5 – 2.1

(4) 1.8 -2.4

46. A total station is a combination of

(1) Theodolite and EDM

(2) Electronic theodolite and EDM

(3) Compass and EDM

(4) Electronic compass and EDM

47. Which of the following Electronic Distance Measurements is useful in major construction where alignment is to be done precisely and quickly?

(1) Optical theodolite

(2) Digital theodolite

(3) Laser theodolite

(4) Vernier theodolite

48. Reduced Level (R.L.) of the floor at building is 74.400 m, staff reading on the floor is 1.625 m and staff reading when it is held inverted with bottom touching the ceiling of a hall is 2.870 m, then the height of the ceiling above the floor is

(1) 3.593 m

(2) 3.953 m

(3) 4.594 m

(4) 4.495 m

49. A lamp at the top of a lighthouse is visible just above the horizon from a station at sea level. The distance of the lamp from the station is 30 km. The height of the lighthouse is

(1) 6057m

(2) 30.0 m

(3) 20.61 m

(4) 54.0 m

50. A device/devices which transfers heat from low temperature region to high temperature is

(1) Only refrigerator

(2) Only heat pump

(3) Both refrigerator and heat pump

(4) None of these

51. __________ possesses lowest thermal conductivity among the following materials:

(1) Sawdust

(2) Ash

(3) Glass wool

(4) Freon

52. _______ is not the assumption of Fourier’s equation of heat conduction,

(1) Constant temperature difference

(2) Uniform area of cross-section

(3) Steady heat flow

(4) Homogeneous substance

53. If the designation of a deep-groove ball bearing is 6014, then bore diameter is ______ mm.

(1) 60

(2) 70

(3) 84

(4) 74

54. Which gears are used to transmit heavy loads, high speeds at low noise level between parallel shaft?

(1) Spur gears

(2) Helical gears

(3) Bevel gears

(4) Worm gears

55. Which is inversion of four-bar mechanism?

(1) Coupling rod of locomotive

(2) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism

(3) Elliptical trammel

(4) Oldham’s coupling

56. Which of the following material requires the largest shrinkage allowance, while making a pattern for casting?

(1) Malleable Iron

(2) Plain Carbon Steel

(3) Lead

(4) Brass

57. ________ is widely used in tool steels because the tool will maintain its hardness even at red heat.

(1) Chromium

(2) Nickel

(3) Tungsten

(4) Vanadium

58. Maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is defined as

(1) sum of maximum and minimum energy.

(2) ratio of maximum and minimum energy.

(3) ratio of minimum and maximum energy.

(4) difference between maximum and minimum energy.

59. An electric heater is rated as 1 kW, 250 V. Calculate the current taken by it if it is connected to 200 V supply

(1) 4.5 A

(2) 3.2 A

(3) 5 A

(4) 3 A

60. The open circuit test in a transformer is performed with

(1) rated transformer voltage

(2) rated transformer current

(3) direct current

(4) high frequency supply

61. In the equivalent circuit of a practical transformer, its magnetizing impedance is determined by

(1) Short circuit test

(2) Open circuit test

(3) Both short circuit and open circuit tests

(4) Other than above tests

62. A 3-phase load is balanced if all the three phases have the same

(1) impedance

(2) power factor

(3) impedance and power factor

(4) None of these

63. The coefficient of the x⁵ term in the Maclaurin polynomial for sin (2x) is

(1) 0

(2) 0.0083333

(3) 0.016667

(4) 0.26667

64. Choose the correct set function which are linearly dependent:

(1) sin x, sin² x and cos² x

(2) cos x, sin x and tan x

(3) cos 2x, sin² x and cos² x

(4) cos 2x, sin x and cos x