MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test Question Paper 2011

MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test Question Paper 2011

1. What is the causative agent of glanders in horses?

(1) Pseudomonas equi

(2) Malleomyces perfrigens

(3) Burkhoderia mallei

(4) All of the above

2. Which of the following for stomach disease is treated by ‘Vinegar’?

(1) Acid indigestion

(2) Vagus indigestion

(3) Simple indigestion

(4) Alkaline Indigestion

3. What are the indications of flunixin meglumine in horses?

(1) As an antibiotic

(2) As an Anthelmintic

(3) As an Antiflatulent

(4) As an Analgesic

4. Which one of the following is a perennial cause of renal insufficiency?

(1) Nephritis

(2) Congestive heart failure

(3) Rupture of bladder

(4) Amyloidosis

5. Which of the following worm causes Verminous bronchitis in cattle?

(1) Parascaris equorum

(2) Dictyocalus viviparous

(3) Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

(4) Dictyocaulus eckerti

6. Which of the following diseases causes clinical intoxication?

(1) Anthrax

(2) Botulism

(3) Tetanus

(4) Rabies

7. Which of the following viruses is antigenetically related to Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV)?

(1) Swine Fever Virus

(2) Rinderpest virus

(3) Malignant catarrhal fever virus

(4) Foot and mouth disease virus

8. Name the term for a high- pitched inspiration sound audible with or without stethoscope over the larynx or tracher.

(1) Stertor

(2) Stridor

(3) Inspiration Dyspnoea

(4) None of the above

9. Name the coexisting other disease with hypomagnesaemia in calves.

(1) Ketosis

(2) Hypocalcaemia

(3) Hypoproteinaemia

(4) Enxootic muscular dystrophy

10. Name the disease caused by dietary deficiency of calcium, phosphorus and Vitamin D in young animals.

(1) Milk fever

(2) Rickets

(3) Osteomalacia

(4) Osteomyelitis

11. As a preanaesthetic what sedative routinely used in domestic ruminants that produces satisfactory sadation, muscle relaxation and analgecia?

(1) Siquil

(2) Largagtil

(3) Xylazine

(4) Detomidine

12. The surgery conducted for the purpose of diagnosis of condition in animals is

(1) Extirpative surgery

(2) Exploratory surgery

(3) Radical surgery

(4) Laser surgery

13. What surgical procedure is indicated to remove foreign bodies from the reticulum?

(1) Reticulotomy

(2) Reticulectomy

(3) Remunotomy

(4) Laparotomy

14. The condition caused by rough roads and extra heavy loads in bullocks and buffalo bulls

(1) Haematoma

(2) Cyst

(3) Tumour

(4) Toke gall

15. Extensive oedematous condition of conjunctiva is known as

(1) Keratitis

(2) Conjuctivitis

(3) Ptergium

(4) Chemosis

16. Resection of devitalized and necrotic caecum is termed as

(1) Enterotomy

(2) Conjuctivitis

(3) Pterygium

(4) Chemosis

17. Resection of devitalized and necrotic caecum is termed as

(1) Enterotomy

(2) Enterectomy

(3) Caecotomy

(4) Typhelectomy

18. The local anaesthesia that blocks sensory and motor nevers and 2 – 4 times more potent than ligncoaine is

(1) Tetracaine

(2) Bupivacaine

(3) Mepivacaine

(4) Lidocaine

19. What kind of imaging technique is routinely used to monitor the efficacy of a treatment schedule in fracture repair?

(1) Arthroscopy

(2) Ultrasonography

(3) Radiography

(4) Fluoroscopy

20. Inability or reduced ability of male to fertilize is known as

(1) Infertility

(2) Impotentia generandi

(3) Sterility

(4) Impotentia Coeundi

21. Who decides the time of parturition and who initiates the parturition process?

(1) Foetus and Ovum

(2) Ovem and Foetus

(3) Temperature

(4) None of the above

22. The drug of choice for super ovulation is

(1) Progesterone

(2) Oestrogen

(3) LH

(4) FSH

23.In which pathological condition Adrenal virilism is seen?

(1) Persistence of corpus luteum

(2) Salpingitis

(3) Cystic Ovarian Degeneration

(4) Metritis

24. In seasonal breeders which gland controls the reproductive activity by secreting melatonin?

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Ovary

(3) Pineal gland

(4) All of the above

25. Which type of placentaion is seen in canines?

(1) Diffused

(2) cotyledonary

(3) Zonary

(4) Discoildal

26. Enzyme secreted by acrosome which helps in penetration of spermatozoa in to the ovum

(1) Protease

(2) Lipase

(3) Hyaluronidase

(4) Peptidase

27. Which test can be used as herd screening test for diagnosis of Brucellosis?

(1) ELIZA

(2) Milk ring test

(3) RIA

(4) Vaginal mucous agglutination test

28. In ETT, non –surgical recovery of embryos is carried out on which days post oestrus in bovines?

(1) 6 to 8

(2) 2 to 3

(3) 15 to 20

(4) none of above

29. Which hormone triggers pre-ovulatory LH surge?

(1) PGF _2α

(2) Thyroxin

(3) Estradiol

(4) Progesterone

30. To achives maximum conception rate, cows should be inseminated in which part of oestrus?

(1) Mid-oestrus

(2) Early oestrus

(3) Very late oestrus

(4) After end of oestrus

31. The corpus luteum does not project above the surface of ovary in

(1) Ewe

(2) Buffalo

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

32. Which is the biological Clock in a Cow

(1) Oveary

(2) Ovum

(3) Follicle

(4) CL

33. Embryos frozen in which cryoprotectant can be transferred directly after thawing?

(1) Glycerol

(2) Ethylene glycol

(3) Any of the above

(4) None of the above

34. What is the minimum number of motile sperms required per insemination from bulls of known fertility to obtain optimum fertility?

(1) 2 lakhs

(2) 10 thousand

(3) 30 thousand

(4) 10 million

35. Which of the following is long day breeders?

(1) Cow

(2) Sow

(3) Mare

(4) Sheep

36. Silent heat is commonly seen in which species?

(1) Buffalo

(2) Cow

(3) Mare

(4) Sow

37. Which is the site of fertilization in mammals?

(1) Ovarian burse

(2) Ampullary – Insthmic Junction

(3)  Infundibulum

(4) None of the above

38. Which site is preferred for Artificial insemination in cattle to achieve maximum conception rate?

(1) External os of cervix

(2) Mid cervix to body of uterus

(3) Vagina

(4) None of the above

39. The pro-oestrual bleeding in canines is seen due to blood cells escaping due to

(1) Rupture of blood vessels

(2) Dipedesis

(3) Both the above

(4) None of the above

40. Curled Toe paralysis is caused by deficiency of

(1) Vit. B₁

(2) Vit. B₂

(3) Vit. B₃

(4) Vit. B₆

41. Inhalation of dust particles of various kinds in the lung is called as

(1) Pleuritis

(2) Pneumoconiosis

(3) Pleuropneumonia

(4) Pneumothorax

42. Inflammation of urinary bladder is called as

(1) Cholangitis

(2) Cholecystitis

(3) Cholelithiasis

(4) Cystitis

43. Which of the following is not a developmental anomaly?

(1) Patency of foramen ovale

(2) Tetralogy of fallot

(3) Ectopia cerdis

(4) Vegetative endocarditis

44. Carcinoma is a malignant tumour of

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue

(3) Endocardial tissue

(4)  Endothelial tissue

45. Tetanus is also called as

(1) Bottle jaw

(2) Wooden jaw

(3) Lack jaw

(4) Rubbery jaw

46. Bleeding from the nasal cavity is called

(1) Haematemesis

(2) Haemoptysis

(3) Epistaxis

(4) Malena

47. Inflammation of crop is called

(1) Ingluritis

(2) Chelitis

(3) Thalitis

(4) Coxitis

48. Presence of petechial haemorrhages at the orifices of proventricular glands is a typical gross lesion of

(1) Newcastle disease

(2) Infectious bursal disease

(3) Aflatoxicosis

(4) Pastteurellosis

49. Increased red blood cells in circulation is called as

(1) Oligocythemia

(2) Anisocytosis

(3) Leukemia

(4) Polycythemia

50. Prolong oral oral therapy of broad spectrum antibiotics leads to

(1) Immunosuppression

(2) Superinfection

(3) Acute toxicity

(4) CNS depression

51. The antibiotic penicillin is discovered in 1929 by

(1) Sir Alexander Flemming

(2) Brotzu

(3) Waksman

(4) Domagk

52. Loading dose of drug is given

(1) When half life of drug is long

(2) When serum concentration is to be achieved rapidly

(3) When therapeutic index is low

(4) When drug follows first order kinetics

53. An ability of drug to cause cancer is called as

(1) Teratogenecity

(2) Carcinogenecity

(3) Mutagenecity

(4) Neurotoxicity

54. Atropine is an example of

(1) Parasympatholytic drug

(2) Parasympathomimetic drug

(3) Sympathomimetic drug

(4) Catecholamine

55. ___________ antimicrobials may cause arthopathic toxicity in pups.

(1) Fluoroquinolones

(2) Sulfonamides

(3) Aminoglycoside antibiotics

(4) Cephalosporins

56. Therapeutic index is ratio of

(1) LD 50/ED 50

(2) ED50/LD 50

(3) LD₁/ED 99

(4) None of the above

57. Prodrug is

(1) Inactive drug which gets activated in body

(2) Metabolic end product

(3) Drug which competes with another for metabolism

(4) Drug which increases efficiency of another drug

58. Dose of drug depends on

(1) Rate of excretion

(2) Rate of absorption

(3) Serum levels

(4) Half life

59. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in

(1) Liver

(2) Brain

(3) Kidney

(4) Spleen

60. The Phenomenon of Haemagglutination in influenza virus was first observed by which of the following scientists?

(1) Goodpasture and Woodruff

(2) Enders, Weller and Robbins

(3) Hirst (1941)

(4) Diener (1971)

61. Which of the following are viruses that are transmitted by and replicate in arthropod vectors?

(1) Phages

(2) Arboviruses

(3) Retroviruses

(4) Lyssaviruses

62. Which of the following is the smallest free living organism without cell wall, bound by triple layered cell membrane and requiring sterol for growth?

(1) Mycobacterium

(2) Acholeplasma

(3) Mycoplasma

(4) Rickettsia

63. Which of the following term refers to antibodies produced by a single clone of cells and directed against a single antigenic determinant?

(1) Polyclonal antibodies

(2) Monoclonal antibodies

(3) Secretory antibodies

(4) Auto antibodies

64. Gas gangrene is a disease condition caused by which of the following organisms?

(1) Clostridium perfringens type – B

(2) Clostridium perfringens type – A

(3) Clostridium perfringens type – C

(4) Clostridium perfringens type – D

65. The extrachromosomal genetic elements present in bacteria, responsible for drug resistance are called

(1) Fimbriae

(2) Plasmids

(3) Ribosome

(4) Mesosomes

66. Which of the following organisms are associated with bovine mastitis?

(1) Streptococcus agalactiae

(2) Staphylococcus aureus

(3) Streptococcus uberis

(4) All of the above

67. Which of the following tests can be used for confirmation of anthrax?

(1) Demonstration of MacFadyean’s reaction

(2) Mouse inoculation and Ascoli’s test

(3) Both 1 and 2 of the above

(4) None of the above

68. Which of the following viruses occurs in multiple antigenic forms?

(1) Peste des petits ruminants

(2) Blue tongue

(3) Both 1 and 2 of the above

(4) None of the above

69. The animal association in which one partner is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is known as

(1) Mutualism

(2) Parasitism

(3) Commensalism

(4) Phoresis

70. Haemoglobinurea is commonly observed in

(1) Bovine theileriosis

(2) Bovine piroplasmosis

(3) Bovine surra

(4) None of the above