Home / Question Papers / MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test Question Paper 2011

MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test Question Paper 2011

MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test Question Paper 2011

  1. What is the causative agent of glanders in horses?

(1) Pseudomonas equi

(2) Malleomyces perfrigens

(3) Burkhoderia mallei

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following for stomach disease is treated by ‘Vinegar’?

(1) Acid indigestion

(2) Vagus indigestion

(3) Simple indigestion

(4) Alkaline Indigestion

  1. What are the indications of flunixin meglumine in horses?

(1) As an antibiotic

(2) As an Anthelmintic

(3) As an Antiflatulent

(4) As an Analgesic

  1. Which one of the following is a perennial cause of renal insufficiency?

(1) Nephritis

(2) Congestive heart failure

(3) Rupture of bladder

(4) Amyloidosis

  1. Which of the following worm causes Verminous bronchitis in cattle?

(1) Parascaris equorum

(2) Dictyocalus viviparous

(3) Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

(4) Dictyocaulus eckerti

  1. Which of the following diseases causes clinical intoxication?

(1) Anthrax

(2) Botulism

(3) Tetanus

(4) Rabies

  1. Which of the following viruses is antigenetically related to Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV)?

(1) Swine Fever Virus

(2) Rinderpest virus

(3) Malignant catarrhal fever virus

(4) Foot and mouth disease virus

  1. Name the term for a high- pitched inspiration sound audible with or without stethoscope over the larynx or tracher.

(1) Stertor

(2) Stridor

(3) Inspiration Dyspnoea

(4) None of the above

  1. Name the coexisting other disease with hypomagnesaemia in calves.

(1) Ketosis

(2) Hypocalcaemia

(3) Hypoproteinaemia

(4) Enxootic muscular dystrophy

  1. Name the disease caused by dietary deficiency of calcium, phosphorus and Vitamin D in young animals.

(1) Milk fever

(2) Rickets

(3) Osteomalacia

(4) Osteomyelitis

  1. As a preanaesthetic what sedative routinely used in domestic ruminants that produces satisfactory sadation, muscle relaxation and analgecia?

(1) Siquil

(2) Largagtil

(3) Xylazine

(4) Detomidine

  1. The surgery conducted for the purpose of diagnosis of condition in animals is

(1) Extirpative surgery

(2) Exploratory surgery

(3) Radical surgery

(4) Laser surgery

  1. What surgical procedure is indicated to remove foreign bodies from the reticulum?

(1) Reticulotomy

(2) Reticulectomy

(3) Remunotomy

(4) Laparotomy

  1. The condition caused by rough roads and extra heavy loads in bullocks and buffalo bulls

(1) Haematoma

(2) Cyst

(3) Tumour

(4) Toke gall

  1. Extensive oedematous condition of conjunctiva is known as

(1) Keratitis

(2) Conjuctivitis

(3) Ptergium

(4) Chemosis

  1. Resection of devitalized and necrotic caecum is termed as

(1) Enterotomy

(2) Conjuctivitis

(3) Pterygium

(4) Chemosis

  1. Resection of devitalized and necrotic caecum is termed as

(1) Enterotomy

(2) Enterectomy

(3) Caecotomy

(4) Typhelectomy

  1. The local anaesthesia that blocks sensory and motor nevers and 2 – 4 times more potent than ligncoaine is

(1) Tetracaine

(2) Bupivacaine

(3) Mepivacaine

(4) Lidocaine

  1. What kind of imaging technique is routinely used to monitor the efficacy of a treatment schedule in fracture repair?

(1) Arthroscopy

(2) Ultrasonography

(3) Radiography

(4) Fluoroscopy

  1. Inability or reduced ability of male to fertilize is known as

(1) Infertility

(2) Impotentia generandi

(3) Sterility

(4) Impotentia Coeundi

  1. Who decides the time of parturition and who initiates the parturition process?

(1) Foetus and Ovum

(2) Ovem and Foetus

(3) Temperature

(4) None of the above

  1. The drug of choice for super ovulation is

(1) Progesterone

(2) Oestrogen

(3) LH

(4) FSH

23.In which pathological condition Adrenal virilism is seen?

(1) Persistence of corpus luteum

(2) Salpingitis

(3) Cystic Ovarian Degeneration

(4) Metritis

  1. In seasonal breeders which gland controls the reproductive activity by secreting melatonin?

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Ovary

(3) Pineal gland

(4) All of the above

  1. Which type of placentaion is seen in canines?

(1) Diffused

(2) cotyledonary

(3) Zonary

(4) Discoildal

  1. Enzyme secreted by acrosome which helps in penetration of spermatozoa in to the ovum

(1) Protease

(2) Lipase

(3) Hyaluronidase

(4) Peptidase

  1. Which test can be used as herd screening test for diagnosis of Brucellosis?

(1) ELIZA

(2) Milk ring test

(3) RIA

(4) Vaginal mucous agglutination test

  1. In ETT, non –surgical recovery of embryos is carried out on which days post oestrus in bovines?

(1) 6 to 8

(2) 2 to 3

(3) 15 to 20

(4) none of above

  1. Which hormone triggers pre-ovulatory LH surge?

(1) PGF 2α

(2) Thyroxin

(3) Estradiol

(4) Progesterone

  1. To achives maximum conception rate, cows should be inseminated in which part of oestrus?

(1) Mid-oestrus

(2) Early oestrus

(3) Very late oestrus

(4) After end of oestrus

  1. The corpus luteum does not project above the surface of ovary in

(1) Ewe

(2) Buffalo

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

  1. Which is the biological Clock in a Cow

(1) Oveary

(2) Ovum

(3) Follicle

(4) CL

  1. Embryos frozen in which cryoprotectant can be transferred directly after thawing?

(1) Glycerol

(2) Ethylene glycol

(3) Any of the above

(4) None of the above

  1. What is the minimum number of motile sperms required per insemination from bulls of known fertility to obtain optimum fertility?

(1) 2 lakhs

(2) 10 thousand

(3) 30 thousand

(4) 10 million

  1. Which of the following is long day breeders?

(1) Cow

(2) Sow

(3) Mare

(4) Sheep

  1. Silent heat is commonly seen in which species?

(1) Buffalo

(2) Cow

(3) Mare

(4) Sow

  1. Which is the site of fertilization in mammals?

(1) Ovarian burse

(2) Ampullary – Insthmic Junction

(3)  Infundibulum

(4) None of the above

  1. Which site is preferred for Artificial insemination in cattle to achieve maximum conception rate?

(1) External os of cervix

(2) Mid cervix to body of uterus

(3) Vagina

(4) None of the above

  1. The pro-oestrual bleeding in canines is seen due to blood cells escaping due to

(1) Rupture of blood vessels

(2) Dipedesis

(3) Both the above

(4) None of the above

  1. Curled Toe paralysis is caused by deficiency of

(1) Vit. B1

(2) Vit. B2

(3) Vit. B3

(4) Vit. B6

  1. Inhalation of dust particles of various kinds in the lung is called as

(1) Pleuritis

(2) Pneumoconiosis

(3) Pleuropneumonia

(4) Pneumothorax

  1. Inflammation of urinary bladder is called as

(1) Cholangitis

(2) Cholecystitis

(3) Cholelithiasis

(4) Cystitis

  1. Which of the following is not a developmental anomaly?

(1) Patency of foramen ovale

(2) Tetralogy of fallot

(3) Ectopia cerdis

(4) Vegetative endocarditis

  1. Carcinoma is a malignant tumour of

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue

(3) Endocardial tissue

(4)  Endothelial tissue

  1. Tetanus is also called as

(1) Bottle jaw

(2) Wooden jaw

(3) Lack jaw

(4) Rubbery jaw

  1. Bleeding from the nasal cavity is called

(1) Haematemesis

(2) Haemoptysis

(3) Epistaxis

(4) Malena

  1. Inflammation of crop is called

(1) Ingluritis

(2) Chelitis

(3) Thalitis

(4) Coxitis

  1. Presence of petechial haemorrhages at the orifices of proventricular glands is a typical gross lesion of

(1) Newcastle disease

(2) Infectious bursal disease

(3) Aflatoxicosis

(4) Pastteurellosis

  1. Increased red blood cells in circulation is called as

(1) Oligocythemia

(2) Anisocytosis

(3) Leukemia

(4) Polycythemia

  1. Prolong oral oral therapy of broad spectrum antibiotics leads to

(1) Immunosuppression

(2) Superinfection

(3) Acute toxicity

(4) CNS depression

  1. The antibiotic penicillin is discovered in 1929 by

(1) Sir Alexander Flemming

(2) Brotzu

(3) Waksman

(4) Domagk

  1. Loading dose of drug is given

(1) When half life of drug is long

(2) When serum concentration is to be achieved rapidly

(3) When therapeutic index is low

(4) When drug follows first order kinetics

  1. An ability of drug to cause cancer is called as

(1) Teratogenecity

(2) Carcinogenecity

(3) Mutagenecity

(4) Neurotoxicity

  1. Atropine is an example of

(1) Parasympatholytic drug

(2) Parasympathomimetic drug

(3) Sympathomimetic drug

(4) Catecholamine

  1. ___________ antimicrobials may cause arthopathic toxicity in pups.

(1) Fluoroquinolones

(2) Sulfonamides

(3) Aminoglycoside antibiotics

(4) Cephalosporins

  1. Therapeutic index is ratio of

(1) LD 50/ED 50

(2) ED50/LD 50

(3) LD1/ED 99

(4) None of the above

  1. Prodrug is

(1) Inactive drug which gets activated in body

(2) Metabolic end product

(3) Drug which competes with another for metabolism

(4) Drug which increases efficiency of another drug

  1. Dose of drug depends on

(1) Rate of excretion

(2) Rate of absorption

(3) Serum levels

(4) Half life

  1. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in

(1) Liver

(2) Brain

(3) Kidney

(4) Spleen

  1. The Phenomenon of Haemagglutination in influenza virus was first observed by which of the following scientists?

(1) Goodpasture and Woodruff

(2) Enders, Weller and Robbins

(3) Hirst (1941)

(4) Diener (1971)

  1. Which of the following are viruses that are transmitted by and replicate in arthropod vectors?

(1) Phages

(2) Arboviruses

(3) Retroviruses

(4) Lyssaviruses

  1. Which of the following is the smallest free living organism without cell wall, bound by triple layered cell membrane and requiring sterol for growth?

(1) Mycobacterium

(2) Acholeplasma

(3) Mycoplasma

(4) Rickettsia

  1. Which of the following term refers to antibodies produced by a single clone of cells and directed against a single antigenic determinant?

(1) Polyclonal antibodies

(2) Monoclonal antibodies

(3) Secretory antibodies

(4) Auto antibodies

  1. Gas gangrene is a disease condition caused by which of the following organisms?

(1) Clostridium perfringens type – B

(2) Clostridium perfringens type – A

(3) Clostridium perfringens type – C

(4) Clostridium perfringens type – D

  1. The extrachromosomal genetic elements present in bacteria, responsible for drug resistance are called

(1) Fimbriae

(2) Plasmids

(3) Ribosome

(4) Mesosomes

  1. Which of the following organisms are associated with bovine mastitis?

(1) Streptococcus agalactiae

(2) Staphylococcus aureus

(3) Streptococcus uberis

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following tests can be used for confirmation of anthrax?

(1) Demonstration of MacFadyean’s reaction

(2) Mouse inoculation and Ascoli’s test

(3) Both 1 and 2 of the above

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the following viruses occurs in multiple antigenic forms?

(1) Peste des petits ruminants

(2) Blue tongue

(3) Both 1 and 2 of the above

(4) None of the above

  1. The animal association in which one partner is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is known as

(1) Mutualism

(2) Parasitism

(3) Commensalism

(4) Phoresis

  1. Haemoglobinurea is commonly observed in

(1) Bovine theileriosis

(2) Bovine piroplasmosis

(3) Bovine surra

(4) None of the above

About Shanku

Check Also

MAHA Forest VanRakshak Bharti 2019 Physical Examination Details

VanRakshak Bharti 2019 Physical Examination Details Maharashtra Forest Department started a new job for Vanrakshak …

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *