MPSC Law Officer, Directorate of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Maharashtra Education Service, Group-B Question paper 2017

MPSC Law Officer, Directorate of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Maharashtra Education Service, Group-B Question paper 2017

  1. A, on grave and sudden provocation, fires a pistol at Z, under such circumstances that if he thereby caused death he would be guilty of

(1) Grievous hurt

(2) Murder

(3) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(4) Death by negligence

  1. Duty to educate the child/ward is imposed upon the parents/guardians by which amendment of the Constitution of India?

(1) 42nd

(2) 46th

(3) 93rd

(4) 86th

  1. Which out of the following are exempted from the purview of the Human Rights Commission?

(1) The Army

(2) The Navy

(3) The Air Force

(4) All above

  1. According to Section 71 of Indian Contract Act, a person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a

(1) Bailor

(2) Agent

(3) Bailee

(4) Finder of goods 5. For the purpose of issuing a summon, the National Human Rights Commission shall have the power of

(1) The Supreme Court

(2) The High Court

(3) The District Court

(4) The Civil Court

  1. Permission for non-agricultural use of land shall be in accordance with the provisions of Section of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966.

(1) 40

(2) 42

(3) 43

(4) 48

  1. A Revenue Officer appointed as per the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code for each division is called a

(1) Naib-Tahasildar

(2) Collector

(3) Commissioner

(4) Tahasildar

  1. As per Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement enforceable by law is contract.

(1) (d)

(2) 2(f)

(3) 2(h)

(4) 2(j)

  1. The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 was published in Gazette of India on

(1) 10-12-1993

(2) 8-1-1994

(3) 18-12-1994

(4) 10-1-1994

  1. A______ having right to exercise a power of sale and be entitled to appoint a receiver.

(1) Mortgagor

(2) Mortgagee

(3) Trustee

(4) Ostensible owner

  1. Which of the following means hunting?
  2. killing or poisoning of any wild animal.
  3. snaring, baiting of any wild animal.
  4. using tricks and man oeuvres on any wild animal.
  5. coursing or trapping any wild animal.

Choose correct option:

(1) a,b,c,d

(2) a, b, c

(3) a, b, d

(4) b, c, d

  1. A State Pollution Control Board shall meet at least once in every_____ months and shall observe rules of procedure.

(1) 3

(2) 6

(3) 5

(4) 4

  1. The Jurisdiction of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is (1) The whole of India

(2) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

(3) The whole of India except Nagaland and Sikkim

(4) The whole of India except the Scheduled Area

  1. In view to protect the environment, environmental activist Sunderlal Bahuguna went on “Sit-in” and hunger strike. This action was taken by him in relation to which of the following projects/cases?

(1) Narmada Valley Projects

(2) Tehri Dam Project

(3) Silent Valley Project

(4) Dehradun quarrying case

  1. What is included according to Water Act, 1974, within the definition of stream ?
  2. river
  3. dry water course time being
  4. underground water d. sea water upto prescribed extent

Choose correct option:

(1) a only

(2) a and c

(3) a, c and d

(4) All are included

  1. Which of the following statements are false?
  2. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 is the effect of Stockholm declaration. b. Development projects are more important than protection of environment, for the prosperity of the country.
  3. Pollution free environment is implied in the Article 21 of Constitution.
  4. Citizens cannot invoke jurisdiction of Supreme Court under Art. 32 of Constitution for the environment pollution.

Choose correct option:

(1) b and d

(2) c only

(3) a and c

(4) All are true

  1. Which Court has the power to try offence punishable under Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?

(1) Metropolitan Magistrate

(2) Judicial Magistrate First Class

(3) Judicial Magistrate Second Class

(4) (I) and (2) both

  1. according to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, special provisions regarding motor vehicle subject to hire – purchase agreement etc. covered under Section

(1) 40

(2) 51

(3) 53

(4) 55

  1. The suit to regain the possession of property unlawfully disposed must be brought within_____from dispossession, as per provision of Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

(1) Six months

(2) Three months

(3) One year

(4) Two years

  1. Who has quoted following words? “Power tends to corrupt and absolute power tends to corrupt absolutely.”

(1) Montesquieu

(2) John Budin

(3) Lord Acton

(4) A. C. Dicey

  1. A suit for rectification should be brought within a period of_____ years from the date, when the mistake comes to the knowledge of plaintiff.

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

  1. The Environment (Protection) Act came into force on_____1986.

(1) 19Oct.

(2) 19 Nov.

(3) 10 July

(4) 17 Aug.

  1. ‘A’ meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He drives the bullock in a certain direction in order to take the treasure. The bullock begins to move. Select correct response:

(1) ‘A’ has committed theft of the treasure.

(2) ‘A’ has not committed theft as he has not taken it.

(3) Theft will be committed when treasure is taken away by ‘A’.

(4) ‘A’ only met bullock, it is not theft.

  1. The Chairperson of the Maharashtra State Human Rights Commission who has been a

(1) Governor

(2) Chief Minister

(3) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(4) Chief Justice of a High Court

  1. What is meant by “Immoral Trafficking” in humans?
  2. Selling children for the purpose of slave trade.
  3. Selling women girls for prostitution.
  4. Offering a girl to God as devdasi.
  5. Exploitation of handicapped person for undesirable purposes.

Choose correct option:

(1) b and c

(2) a, band d

(3) a, b and c

(4) All of the above

  1. according to Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, Agricultural Year means

(1) Year starting from 1St January to 3lSt December

(2) Year starting from 1St April to 31St March

(3) Year starting from 1 St June to 31 st May

(4) As prescribed by State Government by Notification in Official Gazette

  1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was enacted by the Parliament to provide prevention and control of water pollution and to establish a______ and for conferring it powers and functions relating thereto.

(1) Association

(2) Board

(3) Group

(4) Organization

  1. By determination to implement the decision of the conference held in_____ by the UN on the human environment, India enacted the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

(1) Bejing, 1980

(2) Stockholm, 1972

(3) Paris, 191 4

(4) New York, 1981

  1. The Article 31 1 of Constitution provides that the______ may; nominate two members of Anglo-Indian Community to the House of the People.

(1) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(2) President

(3) Prime Minister

(4) Religious Head

  1. Which of the following statements are correct?
  2. Directive Principles are not enforceable.
  3. Directive Principles are to be implemented by State as a duty.
  4. Directive Principles are fundamental in governance of the country.

Choose correct option:

(1) b only

(2) a and b only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b, c all

  1. What is the meaning of “Dacoity” under Section 391 of IPC?

(1) Same as Robbery

(2) Robbery committed by 5 or more persons together

(3) Robbery committed by 6 or more persons together

(4) Robbery committed by 2 or more persons together

  1. Which of the following act is “Adultery” under Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code?

(1) Sexual intercourse with a woman known to be married (wife of another man) with her consent but without consent of her husband.

(2) Sexual intercourse with an unmarried woman with her consent.

(3) Sexual intercourse with an unmarried woman without her consent.

(4) Sexual intercourse with a woman known to be married (wife of another man) with the consent of her husband.

  1. The Indian Penal Code is

(1) Personal law (2) Substantive territorial law

(3) International law

(4) Family law

  1. Which of the following property is not the immovable property?

(1) Standing timber

(2) Right to fishery

(3) Machinery imbedded in the earth for permanent use

(4) Wall

  1. The right to fair compensation and transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Representation Act, 2013
  2. Ensures consultation with local self government.
  3. Participative and transparent process for land acquisition.
  4. Rehabilitation and resettlement of effected persons.

Which of the above is true?

(1) a is true and band c are false

(2) b and a are true and c is false

(3) All of the above i.e. a, b and c are true

(4) None of the above

36 Which one of the following powers cannot be exercised by the Governor of the State ?

(1) Diplomatic powers

(2) Military powers

(3) Emergency powers

(4) All of the above

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. No direction for accumulation of income arising out of any property may be given for the period longer than life of transferor.
  3. Directions for accumulations of income beyond the life time of transferor may be given for the purpose of payments of debts of transferor.

Choose the correct option from the below.

(1) Statement a is correct but statement b is incorrect.

(2) Statement a is incorrect and statement b is correct.

(3) Statements a and b are correct and statement b is further explanation of statement a.

(4) Statements a and b are correct and statement b is an exception to statement a.

  1. To control noise pollution, a loud speaker or the public address system shall not be used at night without written permission in open places between

(1) 12 noon to 6 a.m.

(2) 1Op.m. to6a.m.

(3) 9 p.m. to9 a.m.

(4) 11 p.m. to 6 a.m.

  1. As per the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, trophy includes which of the following?

(1) Rugs, skin

(2) Antler, bone

(3) Carapace, shell

(4) All the above

  1. As per the special provision of compensation, in case of hit and run motor accident, how much will be the compensation for grievous hurt?

(1) Rs. 12,500

(2) Rs. 15,500

(3) Rs. 17,500

(4) Rs.20,500

  1. The grounds for execution of the period of limitation under_____ of Limitation Act are fraud, mistake and concealments and the effects thereof.

(1) Section 16

(2) Section 17

(3) Section 15

(4) Section 19

  1. _______of The Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887 stated jurisdiction of courts of small causes. .

(1) Chapter IV

(2) Chapter II

(3) Chapter III

(4) None of the above

  1. According to_____ of Small Cause Courts Act, there is a provision of passing of decrees by registrar on confession.

(1) Section 18

(2) Section 19

(3) Section 20

(4) Section 21

  1. According to Section 15 of Small Cause Courts Act, a court of small causes shall not take cognizance of the suits specified in the______ as suits excepted from the cognizance of a court of small causes.

(1) First Schedule

(2) Second Schedule

(3) Third Schedule

(4) Fourth Schedule

  1. Section______ of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with the provision of continuing breach of contract or a continuing tort.

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

  1. Chapter_____ Rules of High Court (Original) Rules_______ deal with computation of time and power to enlarge or abridge time.

(1) XVIII, 262-266

(2) XVII, 251-260

(3) XVIII, 258-265

(4) XVII, 262-268

  1. According to Rule 108 of High Court (Original) Rules, a copy of the Third Party Notice and affidavit of defendant shall be furnished to all parties to the suit within______ from the date of order granting leave to issue the Third Party Notice.

(1) One week

(2) Ten days

(3) Two weeks

(4) Three weeks

  1. According to Section 105-D (1) the court shall, under Sub-Section(l), or on receipt of a letter of request under Sub-section (______)of Section_________ directs any Police Officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector of Police to take all steps necessary for tracing and identifying unlawfully acquired property.

(1) 2,105-C

(2) 3, 105-C

(3) 2, 105-C

(4) 3, 105-C

  1. The provision of security for keeping the peace on conviction is mentioned in_____, Section_____of Code of Criminal Procedure.

(1) Chapter VII, 104

(2) Chapter VI, 101

(3) Chapter VI, 105

(4) Chapter VIII, 106

  1. According to Section 219(1), when a person is accused of more offences than one of the same kind committed within the space of______ from the first to the last of such offences, whether in respect of the same person or not, he may be charged with and tried at one trial for, any number of them not exceeding_______

(1) 6 months, two

(2) 9 months, three

(3) 12 months, three

(4) 5 months, four

  1. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court stated: “So far as the question of executability of a decree is concerned, the Civil Procedure Code contains elaborate and exhaustive provisions for dealing with it in all its aspects”?

(1) Gauri Shankar Vs Hindustan Trusts Ltd.

(2) Ghanteshwar Vs Madan Mohan

(3) Ghanshyarn Vs Kamal Singh

(4) Ghanshyam Das Gupta Vs Anant Kumar Sinha

  1. Which Section of Cr.P.C. empowers a Magistrate to effect arrest?

(1) Sec. 41

(2) Sec. 42

(3) Sec. 43

(4) Sec. 44

  1. Which Section of Cr.P.C. contains provision for: Security for good behavior from habitual offenders ?

(1) Sec. 110

(2) Sec. 11 1

(3) Sec. 1 12

(4) Sec. 109

  1. Can any Officer In charge of a police station inspect weight and measures?
  2. Yes
  3. No
  4. With warrant
  5. Without warrant

Choose correct option:

(1) a and d only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) b and d only

  1. Can three offences of same kind within year may be charged together as per the provisions of Cr.P.C.?

(1) No, because for every distinct offence, there shall be separate charge and a separate trial

(2) Yes, with the consent of the accused

(3) Yes, with consent of the prosecution

(4) Yes

  1. As per High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1980, which of the following Rule deals with ‘Designation of Advocate as Senior Advocate’?

(1) Rule 22

(2) Rule 23

(3) Rule 24

(4) Rule 25

  1. Which Chapter of High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1980 deals with ‘Writ of Summons’?

(1) Chapter V

(2) Chapter VI

(3) Chapter Vll

(4) Chapter Vlll

  1. ‘Notices of Motion’ are dealt in which Chapter of High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1980?

(1) Chapter X

(2) chapter XI

(3) Chapter Xll

(4) Chapter Xlll

  1. ‘Garnishee Proceedings’ are mentioned in which Chapter of High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1980?

(1) Chapter XX (2) Chapter XXI

(3) Chapter XXll

(4) Chapter XXlll

  1. As per the provisions of High Court (Appellate Side) Rules, 1960, whether an advocate can appear prior to filing of Vakalatnama?
  2. No, it is not allowed
  3. With permission of opposite counsel
  4. Yes, he can appear by filling a statement
  5. None of the above Choose corrects option:

(1) a only

(2) c only

(3) a and b only

(4) a and d only

  1. If two or more Judges of the small Cause Court sit together in any suit, differ in their opinion as to any question of law or usage having the force of law or the construction of a document, what is to be done?

(1) May be sent to larger bench

(2) Reference to High Court

(3) Reference to Law and Judiciary Department

(4) Expert opinion be sought

  1. The Notaries Act, 1952 extends to the

(1) Whole of India

(2) Whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Only in Union Territories

(4) None of the above

  1. What are the functions of a notary under The Notaries Act, 1952?
  2. Verify, authenticate, certify or attest the execution of any instrument
  3. To issue license to a notary
  4. Administer oath to or to take affidavit from, any person
  5. Translate and verify the translation of, any document from, one language to another

Choose correct option:

(1) None of the above

(2) All of the above

(3) a, b and d of the above

(4) a, c and d of the above

  1. Which Section of Notaries Act, 1952, contains provision for penalty for falsely representing to be a notary, etc.?

(1) Sec. 10

(2) Sec. 11

(3) Sec. 12

(4) Sec. 13

  1. Who may by notification in the official gazette make rules to carry out the purposes of the Notaries Act?

(1) The Union Law Minister

(2) The President

(3) The Governor

(4) The Central Government

  1. A. Confession by accused while in custody of police not be proved against him.
  2. No confession by accused while in custody of police, unless it be made in the immediate presence of a magistrate, shall be proved against accused.

Select correct response:

(1) A and B both are correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both A and B are incorrect

(4) Only A is correct

  1. A desires a court to give judgement that B shall be punished for a crime which A says B has committed.

(1) The burden of proof lies on A

(2) The burden of proving A wrong lies on B

(3) B has to prove the fact never existed

(4) (2) and (3)

  1. Presumption as to dowry death under Section 113B has the same meaning under which Section of Indian Penal Code?

(1) 304 A

(2) 304 B

(3) 498 A

(4) 420 B

  1. A sues B on an agreement and gives B notice to produce it. At the trial, A calls for the document and B refuses to produce it. A gives secondary evidence of its contexts. B seeks to produce the document itself to contradict the secondary evidence given by A.

(1) A can stop B from doing so by making an application to the court

(2) B cannot do that as restricted under law

(3) B has the right to do so

(4) B can do so to show the agreement is not stamped

  1. No judge of a Criminal Court (other than a Judge of a High Court) or Magistrate shall try any person for any offence committed before them as referred to in

(1) Section 195

(2) Section 344

(3) Section 345

(4) Section 350

  1. The Small Cause Court have no jurisdiction in which of the following?
  2. Suits for recovery of immovable property
  3. Suits to obtain an injunction
  4. Suits to enforce a trust
  5. Suits for the partition of immovable property

Choose correct option:

(1) a and b

(2) a and d

(3) b and c

(4) a, b, c and d

  1. The bailiff directed to make the distress may force open what places for the purpose of seizing property?

(1) Stable, outhouse, any dwelling

(2) Residence of women

(3) Zenana

(4) All the above

  1. Other than application for issuance of which writ under Article 226 of Constitution, an application may be heard and finally disposed of by a single Judge to be appointed in this behalf by the Chief Justice?

(1) Writ of Habeas Corpus

(2) Writ of Mandamus (3) Writ of Prohibition

(4) Writ of Certiorari

  1. If any witness before the Small Cause Court refuses to answer the questions or to produce document, what act~on the court may take?
  2. Sentence simple imprisonment
  3. Commit to the custody of an officer not exceeding 7 days
  4. Fine the person not exceeding Rs. 5,000
  5. Dismiss the matter Choose correct option:

(1) a orb

(2) a orb or c

(3) d

(4) None of the above

  1. The list of court holidays and vacations to be observed in the court are prepared by which of the following?

(1) Small Cause Court

(2) High Court

(3) District Court

(4) Supreme Court

  1. The_______ of C.P.C. provides for the procedure and mode in which the courts of civil jurisdiction may exercise their jurisdiction. (1) Part one (2) First Schedule (3) Part two (4) Second Schedule
  2. According to Order _______ Rule -________ of Code of Civil Procedure, there is provision for delivery of summon through courier, including fax message or electronic mail service.

(1) v,2

(2) VI, 12

(3) v, 9

(4) VI,7

  1. is one whose presence on the record is enjoined by law, or in whose absence no effective decision can, at all be given.

(1) A Proper Party

(2) A Third Party

(3) Ex Party

(4). A Necessary Party

  1. Rule______ of Order______ of C.P.C. lays down provision regarding judgement on the basis of admissions.

(1) 3, XII

(2) 6, XII

(3) 4, Xlll

(4) 5, XII

  1. C.P.C._______ of ______ empowers the court to issue a commission for examination of witness in prison.

(1) Rule 7, Order XVI-A

(2) Rule 5, Order XVI-B

(3) Rule 5, Order XVI-A

(4) Rule 2, Order XVI-B

  1. Lok Adalats are (1) Judicial bodies (2) Administrative bodies (3) Quasi-judicial bodies (4) Arbitrational bodies 82. The Lok Adalats are established under
  2. National Legal Services Authority Rules, 1995
  3. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  4. Supreme Court Legal Services Committees d. High Court Legal Services Committees

Choose correct option:

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and c only

(4) c and d only

  1. Which legislation is recently passed by Maharashtra, to curb Social Boycott ?
  2. Maharashtra Control of People from Social Boycott Act, 2017
  3. Maharashtra Prohibition of People and Families from Social Boycott Act, 201 6
  4. Maharashtra Prohibition of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2016
  5. Maharashtra Prevention and Control and Prohibition of Discrimination of Boycott (Redressal) Act, 2017

Choose correct option :

(1) a and d only

(2) b only

(3) c only

(4) b and d only

  1. Which legislation protects children from sexual abuse?
  2. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
  3. Minor and Juvenile Protection Act, 201 6
  4. Prohibition and Custody of Juveniles Act, 201 7
  5. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

Choose correct option:

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a only

(4) d only

  1. Which advocate appeared as intervenor in Shayara Bano Vs Union of India?

(1) Kapil Sibbal

(2) Harish Salve

(3) Abdul Majid

(4) Salman Khurshid

  1. In which of the following recent case, the Supreme Court held that Right to Privacy is a Fundamental Right? (1) Ramakrishna Dalmia Vs Justice Tendulkar

(2) Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India

(3) Justice Kandaswamy Vs Union of India

(4) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

  1. Name the case, in which the Supreme Court held, ‘No liquor shop near National Highways’. (1) State of Tamil Nadu Vs K. Balu

(2) Mahipal Singh Vs State of Uttar Pradesh

(3) Shayara Bano Vs Union of India

(4) Jeeja Ghosh Vs Union of India

  1. In which case, the Supreme court held that : Jammu and Kashmir has no vestige of sovereignty outside the Constitution of India ?

(1) State Bank of India Vs Santosh Gupta

(2) Sankalp Charitable Trust Vs Union of lndia

(3) Shyam Chouski Vs Union of India

(4) Jindal Stainless Ltd. Vs Jammu and Kashmir

  1. By which Acts, women are protected from sexual harassment at working place?
  2. Vishakha (Protection of Women) Act, 2014 b. Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 201 3
  3. Protection of Women from (All sorts of harassment) Act, 2015
  4. Prevention of Cruelty and Harassment to Women Act, 2017

Choose correct option:

(1) a only (2) b only

(3) a and c only

(4) a and d only

  1. Poor economic condition and contrary social circumstances forces the children to work as labour. The whole life of a child labour is affected with problems of poverty, sickness, physical and mental exploitation, etc. To eradicate the problem, which Act is in force today?

(1) The Protection of Child Rights Act, 1993

(2) The Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005

(3) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 201 6

(4) The United Nations Children Act, 2000

  1. To provide more effective protection of the rights of women who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto, which of the following law is passed?
  2. The Protection of Women Act, 2000
  3. The Women (Protection and Security) Act, 2002
  4. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
  5. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005

Choose correct option:

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) a only

(4) d only

  1. As per the prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 provisions, “Child” means

(1) a person who has completed 18 years of age

(2) a person who, if a male has not completed twenty one years of age, and if a female, has not completed eighteen years of age (3) a person who, if a male, has completed twenty one years of age and if a female, has completed eighteen years of age

(4) a person who, if a male, has not completed sixteen years of age and if a female, has not completed sixteen years of age

  1. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court decided about the legality of adoption of Indian children by Foreign parents?

(1) Bandhua Mukti Morcha Vs Union of India

(2) M. C. Mehta Vs Union of India

(3) Sheela Barse Vs State of Maharashtra

(4) Laxmikant Pandey Vs Union of India

  1. By which case, the Supreme Court decided to introduce mid-day meal for children?

(1) People’s Union for Civil Liberties Vs Union of India

(2) People’s Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India

(3) M. C. Mehta Vs Union of India

(4) Sheela Barse Vs Union of India

  1. Legal aid means

(1) Paying Lawyer’s fee to the poor and weaker section

(2) Giving free legal advice to the needy people

(3) The free legal assistance to the poor and weaker section

(4) Providing Special Courts to the poor and weaker section

  1. The Law Commission of India by which Report of 1958, outlined a detailed scheme of legal aid to poor?

(1) 11th Report

(2) 12th Report

(3) 13th Report

(4) 14th Report

  1. In a case, Supreme Court ordered to conduct the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) 2016 in two phases. Who filed the petition?

(1) State of Karnataka

(2) State of Maharashtra

(3) Medical Council of India

(4) Sankalp Charitable Trust

  1. In which of the following case, Supreme Court held forcing husband to get separated from his parents, amounts to ‘cruelty’?

(1) Anita Kushwaha Vs Pushpa Sadan

(2) Narendra Vs K. Meena

(3) Hiralal Harsora Vs Kusum Harsora

(4) Krishnamurthy Vs Mrs. Krishnamurthy

  1. The Supreme Court made it mandatory for all cinema theatres to play National Anthem before a movie begins, name the case.

(1) Shyam Narayan Chouski Vs Union of India

(2) Naveen Jindal Vs Union of India

(3) Muthuramlingam Vs State of Tamil Nadu

(4) Jonax Theatres Pvt. Ltd. Vs Union of India

  1. Public interest Litigation means
  2. Publicity interest Litigation
  3. Political interest Litigation
  4. Pro Bono Publico
  5. Pro Bono Jura Choose correct option:

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) c only

(4) b and d only