MPSC  Government Labour Officer, Maharashtra Labour Services, Group-B And  Assistant Commissioner of Labour, Maharashtra Labour Services, Group-A Screening Test Question Paper 2017

MPSC  Government Labour Officer, Maharashtra Labour Services, Group-B And  Assistant Commissioner of Labour, Maharashtra Labour Services, Group-A Screening Test Question Paper 2017

1. Who from the following was not associated with SamyuMa Maharashtra Parishad ?

(1) Shankarrao Deo

(2) Keshavrao Jedhe

(3) D. V. Gokhale

(4) S. K. Patil

2. Arrange the following Acts in their chronological order:
3. Minimum Wages Act
4. Industrial Dispute Act
5. Employees’ Provident Fund Act
6. Maternity Benefit Act

(1) B, A, C, D

(2) C, A, B, D

(3) A, B, C, D

(4) D, C, B, A

3. “McMohan line”, an international boundary between lndia and China touches which of the following State?

(1) Himachal Pradesh

(2) Arunachal Pradesh

(3) Jammu-Kashrnir

(4) Uttaranchal

4. What was the number of districts in India according to 201 1 census?

(1) 440

(2) 540

(3) 640

(4) 740

5. According to the United Nation’s 2014 report, India ranks_______ in the production of Mica in the World.

(1) 13^th

(2) 14^th

(3) 15^th

(4)16^th

6. Who is the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee in Parliament?

(1) Dr. Venugopal

(2) Mallikarjun Kharge

(3) Nishikant Dubey

(4) Subhash Chandra Baheria

7. Which one of the former Presidents was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India?

(1) K. R. Narayanan

(2) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(3) V. V. Giri

(4) R. Venkat Raman

8. Who provides the funds to the Gram Panchayat for Jawahar Employment Scheme (Jawahar Rojgar Yojana) ?

(1) Government of Maharashtra

(2) Finance Commission

(3) Central Government

(4) NITI Aayog

9. Consider the following statements:
10. The State Co-operative Bank act as a banker to Regional Rural Banks.
11. The policy of Regional Rural Banks is more liberal than Co-operative Banks.
12. The Nationalised banks have been providing loans at 4% rate of interest to the weaker section of the society under Differential Interest Rate Scheme from April 1972.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) ‘A’ and ‘6’

(2) ‘B’ and ‘C’

(3) ‘A’ and ‘C’

(4) All of the above

10. Consider the following statements:
11. India’s total merchandise trade in a percentage of GDP was 44.1 percent in 2013-14.
12. India’s merchandise exports in a percentage of GDP was 18.1 percent in 201 3-14.
13. According to VVTO in April 201 4, India was the 1 9Ih largest exporter and 1 2ih largest importer of Merchandise trade in the world.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) ‘A’ and ‘B’

(2) ‘B’ and ‘C’

(3) ‘A’ and ‘C’

(4) All of the above

11. Consider the following statements:
12. India’s exports to Africa declined by 13.5 percent in 2016-17 (April-November)
13. During 2016-17 (April-December), India’s imports of capital goods declined by 8.8 percent.
14. India’s imports from CIS and Baltics region declined by 10.3 percent in (April November) 2016-1 7.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

(1) ‘A’ and ‘B’

(2) ‘B’ and ‘C’

(3) Only ‘C’

(4) Only ‘A’

12. The ‘Raman Scanners’ used at airport security checks or forensic work are based on which of the following natural phenomenon?

(1) Scattering

(2) Radioactivity

(3) Carbon-dating

(4) None of the above

13. The joint efforts of ISRO and Airport Authority of .India (A.A.I.) to meet the civil aviation requirements are regarding the establishment of what?

(1) A.W.S.

(2) AGROMET

(3) GAGAN

(4) None of the above

14. Male and female flowers of_______ are borne on different sporophylls of the same plant.

(1) Angiosperms

(2) Gymnosperms

(3) Spore

(4) Bryophyta

15. In which city Summer Olympics will organize in 2020?

(1) London

(2) Paris

(3) Tokyo

(4) New Delhi

16. Where was India’s first ‘e-court’ established?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Kolkata

(3) Mumbai

(4) Chennai

17. The message of United Nations related to ‘Perpetual Development Manifesto 2030’ includes the dream of______ of ‘social justice and equality’.

(1) Nelson Mandela (Madiba)

(2) Dr. Babasaheb Arnbedkar

(3) lrorn Sharmila

(4) Antonio Guterres

18. Which country has made a co-operation agreement with India for binary taxation on 28^th January, 201 6?

(1) Russia

(2) France

(3) Armenia

(4) Switzerland

19. On 26 May, 2017 the Prime Minister of India inaugurated the longest bridge in India is located on which of the following river?

(1) The Brahrmaputra river

(2) The Ganga river

(3) The Saraswati river

(4) The Godawari river

20. Select the correct option to replace the question mark in the series given below: 424,461,502,545,?

(1) 592

(2) 612

(3) 572

(4) 588

21. What will come in place of the question marks in the following series ?

100? 011001? 0000110?? 01

(1) 0100

(2) 0110

(3) 0001

(4) 1001

22. Nanu has a novels, story collections, science fictions, poem collections and drama books. He gave following information about it.
23. Poem collections are less than novels by 11.
24. There are 5 more science fictions than drama books.

iii. There are 3 less story books than science fictions.

1. Novels and poem collections together are 57 books.
2. Story collections and poem collections together are 38 books.

How many books are there with Nanu ?

(1) 103

(2) 100

(3) 102

(4) 104

23. The Indian Constitution assures Indian women several rights to protect her at work place. The Articles are

(1) Articles 14 and 15 : Right to equality

(2) Article 21 : Right to Life -to live with dignity

(3) Article 19(1) (g) : Right to Practice any profession/trade/occupation/business and also right to safe environment free from harassment

(4) All above said articles are applicable

24.______ founded Madras Labour Union in 191 8.

(1) Mrs. Annie Besant

(2) Mr. B. P. Wadia

(3) Shrimati Anusayaben

(4) None of these

25. For the recognition of Trade Unions, the criteria under the code of Discipline adopted in_____ of Indian Labour Conference.

(1) 14^th Session

(2) 16^th Session

(3) 18^th Session

(4) 19^th Session

26. The psychological model related to Id, Ego and Superego mainly developed by

(1) Sigmund Freud

(2) Martin Buber

(3) Jean-Paul Sartre

(4) Tolman

27.______ is a relatively permanent change in behavior that results from reinforced practice or experience.

(1) Perception

(2) Sensation

(3) Learning

(4) All the above

28. In the transactional analysis, there are different types of transactions. Among the following which one is notconsidered to be a type of transaction?

(1) Complementary transactions

(2) Crossed transactions

(3) Competing transactions

(4) Ulterior transactions

29. Two-factor theory of motivation was proposed by

(1) Douglas McGregor

(2) Frederic Herzberg

(3) Peter Drucker

(4) David McClelland

30. Among the following which are the popular methods of attitude measure?

(1) Thurstone and Likert techniques

(2) Operant and trait approach

(3) Phychomotor and mechanical approach

(4) None of these

31. Barriers in communication that arise from the linguistic capacity of the parties involved are known as____ barriers.

(1) Semantic

(2) Personal

(3) Physical

(4) None of these

32. The comprehensive contingency model for leadership was developed by

(1) Fred Fiedler

(2) Mitchigan

(3) Reddin

(4) Liken

33. In 1991, the ‘National Commission on Rural Labour’ constituted under the chairmanship of

(1) Ela Bhatt

(2) Bhootlingam

(3) G. D. H. Cole

(4) Dr. C. H. Hanumanth Rao

34. _______ is a simple graph or chart showing the relationship between volume of output and total cost and revenue of the firm.

(1) Working capital turnover ratio

(2) Break-even analysis

(3) Cost of rising finance

(4) None of these

35. The most general feature/s of the formal organization is/are
36. It is impersonal or abstract
37. Relationship between its members are designed
38. It is a part of wider system

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) only b

(2) a and b only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

36. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Culture is external and mechanical, while civilization is internal and organic

(2) Culture and civilization are not interdependent

(3) Culture and civilization are interactive

(4) None of these

37. Among the following, which one is not included under psycho-sociological theories?

(1) The Michigan studies

(2) The Pittsburg studies

(3) The Maslow’s theory

(4) The Adam Smith’s theory

38. According to Fair Wage Committee, the Living Wage is

(1) ensures the bare subsistence of life

(2) the lower limit of fair wage

(3) the highest level of wage

(4) the statutory minimum wage

39. The first convention of ILO relates to

(1) Hours of work (Industry)

(2) Minimum wages

(3) Social security

(4) Minimum age (Industry)

40. Who was the Chairman of Second National Commission (2002) on Labour?

(1) P. B. Gajendra Gadkar

(2) Ravindra Varma

(3) R. Krishnan

(4) B. N. Rao

41. The bargaining theory of wages propounded by

(1) J. B. Clark

(2) John Davidson

(3) J. S. Mill

(4) J.M.Keynes

42. For regulation of industries in the desired way, the first and most comprehensive Act of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act was passed by the Parliament in the year

(1) 1948

(2) 1951

(3) 1956

(4) 1973

43. ______ s a group administered questionnaire containing 54 items reflecting a person’s fundamental interpersonal relations, orientation and behaviour.

(1) Emulation

(2) Persuasion

(3) FIRO-B

(4) EURO

44. Convention No. 122 of International Labour Organization [ILO] is related to

(1) Employment Policy

(2) Collective Bargaining

(3) Labour Administration

(4) Minimum Age

45. Which one of the following is not the theoretical perspective concerning lndustrial Relationship ?

(1) Pluralist

(2) Marxian

(3) Trusteeship

(4) Subsistence

46. Representative Union, Qualified Union and Primary Union, these three types of Unions recognised under

(1) lndustrial Disputes Act

(2) MRTU and PULP Act

(3) Maharashtra lndustrial Relations Act

(4) lndustrial Employment (SO) Act –

47. In case of bivariate population, correlation can be studied through
48. Cross tabulation
49. Charles Spearman’s coefficient of correlation
50. Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only a

(2) Only b

(3) b and c only

(4) a, b and c

48. In the Constitution of India, Article 41 relates to

(1) Living Wage

(2) Equality of all citizens before law

(3) Right to work

(4) Formation of new States

49. As per the Industrial Disputes Act, the matters concerned with Second Schedule falls within the jurisdiction of

(1) Industrial tribunal

(2) Labour court

(3) Both industrial tribunal and labour court

(4) None of these

50. The class intervals such as 10 – 20, 20 – 30, 30 – 40, 40 – 50 are usually stated as

(1) Exclusive type

(2) Inclusive type

(3) Frequency type

(4) All the above

51. The important measures of dispersion is/are
52. Range
53. Mean deviation
54. Standard deviation

(1) Only b

(2) Only a and b

(3) Only band c

(4) a, band c

52. The major basic social processes are
53. Co-operation
54. Conflict
55. Competition
56. Accommodation
57. Assimilation

(1) Only a and b

(2) b, d and e

(3) a, c and d

(4) All the above

53. In recent times, there have been rapid developments in the aims and objects of trade unions. The objectives of trade unions may be
54. Improving the wages and conditions of labour
55. Raising the status of workers
56. Extending the area of social control of the nation’s economic life and participation in that control Which of the objectives given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

54. The lntra-Mural activity of aTrade Union refers to

(1) Make provisions for the education of the children of their members

(2) Housing schemes run by the Trade Unions outside

(3) Activities conducted by the Trade Union within the organisation

(4) None of these

55. Who is known as the founder of Organised Labour Movement in lndia ?

(1) N. M. Lokhande

(2) Lokmanya Tilak

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) B. P. Wadia

56. Which organisation has been engaged in collection, compilation, analysis and dissemination of labour statistics at All lndia Level on different facets of labour ?

(1) Central Bureau

(2) Labour Bureau

(3) Labour Tribunal

(4) ESlC

57. ‘Labour is not a commodity’ this fundamental principle of ILO, adopted in 1944 at the conference held in

(1) Geneva

(2) Philadelphia

(3) Turin

(4) Washington

58. Wage Fund Theory was propounded by

(1) J. S. Mill (2) Torrena

(3) Walker

(4) Adam Smith

59. The crucial determinant of fair wages is

(1) Bargaining capacity of the union

(2) Cost push inflation union

(3) Capacity to pay of the industry

(4) Minimum food requirement

60. According to whom, ‘Social Security is an attack on five Giants – Want, Disease, Ignorance, Squalor and Idleness’ ?

(1) Sir William Beveridge

(2) Sir Robert Owen

(3) Sir Rameshwaraiya

(4) Sir Vishweshwaraiya –

61. Section 26 of law relating to arbitration and conciliation in India permits the arbitral tribunal

(1) For an exparte award

(2) For assistance in taking evidence

(3) To seek the assistance of experts

(4) Commencement of proceedings

62. Read the following statements regarding settlements of Industrial Dispute by Arbitration.
63. If arbitration agreement is as per requirements of rule and form are substantially complied, it is sufficient.
64. It is absolutely necessary that arbitration agreement must be in Form-C of the Act.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Only statement A is correct

(3) Only statement B is correct

(4) Both the statements are wrong

63. Section 37 of law relating to arbitration and conciliation specifies the scope of appeal from the orders of the court and arbitral tribunal. period of time is specified for filing an appeal.

(1) Fifteen days

(2) No

(3) Thirty days

(4) Sixty days

64. Read the following statements regarding the Un organised Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008.
65. This Act to provide the social security and welfare of unorganised workers and other matters connected therewith
66. This Act came into force on 3oth December, 2008
67. under Section 10(2) of the Act every eligible un organized worker shall make an application in the prescribed form to the Social Justice Department of the Government.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A and B are correct

(3) Only B and C are correct

(4) All the above are correct

65. The punishment for violation of Employment of Children Act, 1939, is imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than_____but which may extend to or with fine which shall not be less than Rs.______ but which may extend to Rs.______ or with both.

(1) 3 months, 6 months, 500, 1000

(2) 6 months, one year, 500, 1000

(3) 3 months, one year, 500,2000

(4) 6 months, two years, 1000,2000

66. According to Section 48 of the Factories Act, 1948 (I), in every factory wherein more than______ women workers are ordinarily employed there shall be provided and maintained a suitable room or rooms for the use of children, under the age of six years, of such women.

(1) Thirteen

(2) Twenty

(3) Twenty-five

(4) Thirty

67. As per Section 10 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, whose decision is final in case of disputes as to age of child?

(1) Factory Inspector

(2) Employer

(3) Medical Officer

(4) Guardian of Child

68. For contravention of any provision of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 or the Rules, Penalty is imprisonment upto______ or with fine upto Rs. _____ or with both.

(1) 3 months, 500

(2) 6 months, 1000

(3) 6 months, 500

(4) 3 months, 1000

69. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India ruled that employing workers at wage rates below the statutory minimum wage level equivalent to forced labour and prohibited under Article 23 of the Constitution of India?

(1) Kotchu Velu v. Joseph, 1987

(2) National Iron and Steel Company v. State of West Bengal, 1967

(3) Peoples’ Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India, 1982

(4) None of the above

70. According to Section 2 (q) of the Beedi and Cigar Workers (conditions of employment) Act, 1966, “Young person” means a person who has completed______ years of age but has not completed_____ years of age.

(1) 12, 16

(2) 16, 21

(3) 14, 18

(4) 18, 21

71. According to_______ of the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 if personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation in accordance with the provisions of________

(1) Section 3(1), Chapter Ill

(2) Section 4(2), Chapter II

(3) Section 3(1), Chapter II

(4) Section 3(2), Chapter Ill

72. Find odd man out regarding Social Security Schemes for the unorganised workers under Section 2(i) and Section 3 of the Unorganized Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008.

(1) lndira Gandhi National Old Age pension Scheme

(2) Aam Admi Bima Yojana

(3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(4) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

73. Sections______ of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 deals with the penalties for the acts punishable under the Act.

(1) 24 to 30

(2) 26 to 31

(3) 25 to 30

(4) 28 to 32

74. Find odd man out regarding categories of unorganized labour.

(1) Labour employed in industry

(2) Beedi and Cigar workers

(3) Tribal labour

(4) Sweepers and scavengers

75. An arbitration where the procedure is either agreed upon by the parties or in theabsence of an agreement, the procedure is laid down by the arbitral tribunal is known as

(1) Institutional arbitration

(2) Ad hoc arbitration

(3) Contractual arbitration

(4) Statutory arbitration

76. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(1) There must be an agreement between employer and the workmen to refer on industrial dispute to an arbitrator.

(2) The industrial dispute subsists after agreement can be settled by arbitrator.

(3) The dispute to be settled by arbitrator may be regarding working conditions, employment matters, wages etc.

(4) The solution to the dispute will be the award given by the arbitrator.

77. The definition of ‘Arbitration Agreement’ is mentioned in Section______ of law relating to arbitration and conciliation in India.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 6

(4) 9

78. As per Section 18(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the following statement IS wrong?

(1) This gives provision regarding, how to settle industrial dispute.

(2) The Arbitration Award is binding on a11 the parties to the dispute.

(3) The employer and his heirs, successors or assigns are bound by Arbitral Award.

(4) The settlement of dispute is binding on all persons of establishment relates to dispute on the date of disputes and all persons who subsequently become employed in that establishment or part of it.

79. Which Section gives provision for second appeal under Right to Information Act?
80. Sec. 17(1)
81. Sec. 18(4)
82. Sec. 19(1)
83. Sec. 19(3)

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) c only

(4) d only

80. The person appointed as Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission, as per Section 6 of the Protection of Human Rights Act. 1993 shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of________ years, whichever is earlier.

(1) Seventy

(2) Sixty five

(3) Sixty

(4) Seventy five

81. In which of the following case, human rights of transgender community are recognized?
82. Burkha Dutt Vs. Union of India
83. Shabnum Bano Vs. Union of lndia
84. National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India
85. Maharashtra Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India

(1) a and b

(2) b only

(3) c only

(4) All of the above

82. As per Section 19 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, appoint such persons as it thinks fit to be_______ for the purpose of this Act and define the local limits within which they shall exercise their functions.

(1) Contractor

(2) Labour Judge

(3) Inspector

(4) Workshop in charge

83. Which Section of Minimum Wages Act, 1948, require maintenance of registers and records?

(1) Sec. 15

(2) Sec. 16

(3) Sec. 17

(4) Sec. 18

84. Under which Section of Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Central Government can give direction?

(1) Sec. 27

(2) Sec. 28

(3) Sec. 29

(4) Sec. 30

85. Which Section made provision for appointment of special public prosecutor under Protection of Human Rights Act?

(1) Sec. 31

(2) Sec. 32

(3) Sec. 33

(4) Sec. 34

86. As per Section 22 of the Minimum Nages Act, 1948, the employer pays his employee less than the minimum rates of wages fixed for that employee’s class of work, he shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to______ or with fine upto_____ or both.

(1) Twenty days; Rs. 200/-

(2) Three months; Rs.200/-

(3) Six months; Rs. 500/-

(4) One year; Rs. 1,000/-

87. For the purpose of co-ordination of work and advising the appropriate Government in the matter of fixing and revising minimum rates of wages, which body is appointed by the Government?
88. Advisory Board
89. Advisory Council
90. Advisory Committee
91. Advisory Commission

(1) b and c only

(2) b and d only

(3) a only

(4) c only

88. As per Section 21 (5) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the State Commission may inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of matters relatable to any of the entries enumerated in_____to the Constitution.

(1) List – l and List – ll in the First Schedule

(2) List – II and List – IV in the Third Schedule

(3) List – l and List – ll in the Fifth Schedule

(4) List – II and List – Ill in the Seventh Schedule

89. Under Human Rights Act, which Section deals with constitution of State Human Rights Commission?
90. Sec. 20
91. Sec. 21
92. Sec. 22
93. Sec. 23

(1) a and c only

(2) a and d only

(3) b only

(4) c only

90. As per Section 39 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, every member of the Commission, State Commission and every Officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State Commission to exercise functions under this Act shall be deemed to be a

(1) Member of Parliament

(2) Member of Legislative Assembly

(3) Status of Union Minister

(4) Public Servant

91. Where the information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within_____ hours of the receipt of the request under Section 7 of the Right to information Act, 2005.

(1) Seventy two

(2) Forty eight

(3) Ninety six

(4) One hundred

92. Under Right to information Act, “Public Authority” is explained in Sec.
93. 2(a)
94. 2(c)
95. 2(h)
96. 2(k)

(1) a and d only

(2) a and b only

(3) c only

(4) d only

93. As per Section 15 of the Right to information Act, 2005, the State Chief information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on recommendation of a Committee consisting of Chief Minister as Chairperson and_____ in the Legislative Assembly as one of the member.

(1) Leader of opposition

(2) Leader of ruling party

(3) Speaker

(4) Deputy Speaker