Maharashtra Teacher Eligibility Test 2013 Paper 2- English

Maharashtra Teacher Eligibility Test 2013 Paper II- English

 

PART – A: ENGLISH

  1. Choose the correct ‘Question Tag’:

Nothing is impossible

(1) Is it?

(2) Isn’t it?

(3) Is they?

(4) Are they

  1. Choose the correct ‘Simple Sentence’ for the given sentence:

The criminal removed all traces of his crime. He left the building.

(1) The criminal removed all traces of his crime and left the building.

(2) Removing all traces of his crime, the criminal leave the building.

(3) Removing all traces of his crime, the criminal left the building.

(4) Removing all traces of his crime, the criminal leaves the building.

  1. Choose the correct ‘Passive Voice’ for the given sentence:

Why don’t you teach the students?

(1) Why are you not taught by the students?

(2) Why were the students not taught by you?

(3) Why the students are not taught by you?

(4) Why are the students not taught by you?

  1. Choose the correct ‘Degree Sentence’ for the given sentence:

Temperature is one of the most important physical factors.

(1) Very few physical factors are more important than temperature.

(2) Very few physical factors are as important as temperature.

(3) Very few physical factor is more important than temperature.

(4) Very few physical factor is as important as temperature.

  1. Choose the correct use of ‘Though’ in the following sentence:

Sudhir is dull. He studies hard to get good marks.

(1) Though Sudhir is dull, he studies hard to get good marks.

(2) Though Sudhir is dull but he studied hard to good marks.

(3) Though Sudhir is dull, he study hard to get good marks.

(4) Though Sudhir dull, he studies hard to get good marks.

  1. Choose the correct ‘Rhetorical Question’ for the following sentence:

Piu decided to hide in her office.

(1) Doesn’t Piu decide to hide in her office?

(2) Don’t Piu decide to hide in her office?

(3) Didn’t Piu decide to hide in her office?

(4) Did Piu decided to hide in her office?

  1. Choose the correct ‘Exclamatory’ sentence for the given sentence:

The task has very laborious.

(1) How laborious has been the task!

(2) How laborious the task has been!

(3) How has been laborious the task!

(4) How has laborious the task been!

  1. Choose the correct ‘Indirect Speech’ of the given sentence:

John said to the man. “Are you her friend?”

(1) John asked the man if he was her friend.

(2) John asked the man if he was her friend?

(3) John asked to the man if he was her friend.

(4) John asked the man if he is her friend.

  1. Name the underlined ‘Clause’ in the given sentence:

Note it properly lest you may forget all about it.

(1) Adverb Clause of Reason

(2) Adverb Clause of Result

(3) Adverb Clause of Purpose

(4) Adjective Clause

  1. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word:

‘Apogee’

(1) Climax

(2) Beginning

(3) Middle

(4) Bottom

  1. Choose the word ‘Opposite’ in meaning to the given word:

‘Perverse’

(1) Compliant

(2) Fraction

(3) Intractable

(4) Obstinate

  1. Identity which part of the sentence has an error:

One should make / his efforts if one wishes to achieve /

                A                                B

Success in this organization / No error

                  C                                     D

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

  1. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence:

‘A post without remuneration’

(1) Voluntary

(2) Sinecure

(3) Honorary

(4) Involuntary

  1. Choose the one which best express the meaning of the given idiom:

‘To keep the ball rolling’

(1) To earn more and more

(2) To work constantly

(3) To keep the conversation going

(4) TO make the best use of it

  1. Chose the ‘Correctly Spelt’ Word:

(1) Bouquete

(2) Bouquet

(3) Boquet

(4) Bouquette

  1. Pick out the word that is either most nearly the same in meaning or opposite of the given word:

‘Privy’

(1) Dishonest

(2) Quiet

(3) Cautious

(4) Secretive

  1. Choose the ‘Grammatically Wrong’ sentence in the following:

(1) Apples are sold by a dozen.

(2) The captain with his soldiers was killed.

(3) Why did you absent yourself from your classes?

(4) He cut his hand with a knife.

  1. Identify the ‘Figure of Speech’ in the following:

Simple, erect, Severe, austere, sublime.

(1) Repetition

(2) Synecdoche

(3) Litotes

(4) Climax

  1. Choose the correct ‘Preposition’:

We are accountable______ God for our actions.

(1) at

(2) for

(3) to

(4) in

  1. Choose the correct ‘Article’:

_____ declaration of Independence was drawn up in 1776.

(1) A

(2) An

(3) The

(4) No article

  1. the young one of a dog is a puppy. The young one of a hare is_______.

(1) Leveret

(2) Kid

(3) Cygnet

(4) Foal

  1. The cry of a duck is ‘quack’. The cry of a pig is______.

(1) hoot

(2) coo

(3) squeal

(4) lisp

  1. The diminutive of the book is a ‘booklet’. The diminutive of a river is_______.

(1) Reticule

(2) Rivulet

(3) Ringlet

(4) Streamlet

  1. The phobia about air is aerophobia. The phobia about old is_______.

(1) gnosiophobia

(2) phyrobhobia

(3) aglophobia

(4) geraphobia

  1. identify which part of the sentence has an error:

One of the most / widely spread bad habit /

             A                                     B

Is the use of tobacco  / No error.

               C                                D

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

 

Read the following poem and choose the most appropriate answer : (Q. Nos. 26 to 30)

The earth was green, the sky was blue;

I saw and heard one  sunny morn

A skylark hang between the two,

A singing speck above the corn.

A stage below in gay accord,

White butterflies danced on wing,

And still the singing skylark soared,

  The cornfield stretched a tender green

To right and left beside my walks;

I knew he had a nest unseen,

Somewhere among the million stalks.

To right and left beside my walks;

I knew he had a nest unseen,

Somewhere among the million stalks.

And as I paused to hear his song

While swift the sunny moments slid.

Perhaps his mate sal listening long

And listened longer than I did.

  1. The skylark sang when________.

(1) it rained

(2) The sun shone

(3) The earth was green and the sky without clouds

(4) There were clouds

  1. The skylark while singing looked like______.

(1) a star

(2) an insect

(3) an eagle

(4) a small dot

  1. The skylark rose upwards and upwards:

(1) While flying

(2) While singing

(3) While looking

(4) While looking downwards

  1. The nest of the skylark was:

(1) in the fields below

(2) beside other nests

(3) among the numberless stems of corn

(4) among trees

  1. The word ‘Paused’ Means:

(1) Stopped

(2) stood erect

(3) flew across

(4) went straight

 

PART – B : CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

 

  1. According to Harword and Rothway, the physical development is rapid from birth to _______years.

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

  1. Out of two children with similar intellectual capacity, if one in brought up in a general environment and the other is brought up in a rich environment, then_____.

(1) Development of both will be same.

(2) The development of first child will be better than the second.

(3) The development of the second child will be better than the first.

(4) Cannot say anything about their development.

  1. Which of the following is not a stage of mental development of an individual according to Piaget?

(1) Preverbal Stage

(2) Preoperational Representation Stage

(3) Stage of Abstract Operation

(4) Stage of Cognitive Development

  1. Who put forth the idea that children should be given actual experiences for concept foprmation and abstract thinking?

(1) Kohlberg

(2) Bruner

(3) Andersen

(4) Piaget

  1. Which of the following things should be avoided when formal education begins in childhood stage?

(1) Give more emphasis on writing and reading skill.

(2) Increase the duration of school periods.

(3) Give more importance to activity in teaching.

(4) Gibe chance to students to participate in dramatization

  1. Which of the following is not law heredity?

(1) Law of Similarity

(2) Law of variation

(3) Law of Regression

(4) Law of Effect

  1. A student having intelligence quotient less than 25 will be included in which of the following class?

(1) Border

(2) Moron

(3) Imbecile

(4) Idiot

  1. What is the formula of intelligence quotient by the American Phychologist, Terman?

(1) Intelligence Quotient =     Mental Age       x 100

Chronological Age

(2) Intelligence Quotient = Chronological Age     x 100

Mental Age

(3) Intelligence Quotient = Mental Age    x Chronological Age

100

(4) Intelligence Quotient = Chronological Age

Mental Age

  1. Which of the following does not support in concept formation?

(1) Actual knowledge or perception of things.

(2) Analysing objective characteristics and separating a characteristic by imagination.

(3) Formation of common ides and its generalization

(4) No mastery over language in concept formation.

  1. In which of the following aspect will the examples like self-controlled, studious, researcher and narrow miaded will be included?

(1) Likes and dislikes

(2) Tendency

(3) Intellectual

(4) Physiological

  1. According to Cronbach and Supple when activity in indicated in the evaluation then is called as_____evaluation.

(1) Activity oriented

(2) Decision oriented

(3) Conclusion oriented

(4) Specified or indicated

  1. What is meant by continuous and comprehensive evaluation?

(1) Evaluating intellectual progress of students continuously

(2) Evaluating emotional progress of students continuously

(3) Evaluating psychomotor progress of students continuously.

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only B and C

(3) Only A and C

(4) A, B and C

  1. In 1959 Guilford included______ factors in his theory of intelligence.

(1) 120

(2) 130

(3) 125

(4) 110

  1. A teacher should make suitable change in teaching method by keeping individual differences in mind because_______.

(1) The intellectual level of children is different.

(2) The comprehension power of children is different.

(3) Every child will get an opportunity to progress according to his ability.

(4) All of the above

  1. “ Before teaching the Latin language to John, the teacher must first have knowledge and information about John.” Which education is indicated by the above statement?

(1) Teacher Centered Education

(2) Student Centred Education

(3) Language Centred Education

(4) Profounded Mental Retardation

76 which of the following group of menrally retarted children can become literate and acquire occupational competencies?

(1) Moderate Mental Retardation

(2) Mild Mental Reardation

(3) Severe Mental Retardation

(4) Profound Mental Retardation

  1. Which of the following is not reason of Cerebral Palsy?

(1) Medicines taken by a pregnant woman

(2) Diseases occurring in a mother during pregnancy

(3) Brain injury during accident

(4) Large size of the skull

  1. Which of the following things should not be done to overconce visual impairment?

(1) take nutritious diet

(2) Avoid intense sunlight, light on the eyes.

(3) Hold the book at a short distance while reading.

(4) Avoid strain on the eyes.

  1. Which of the following students show the characteristics of gifted children?

(1) ‘A’ has less adjustment capacity

(2) ‘B’ has no ignorance of current affairs

(3) ‘C’ has less skill of artistry

(4) ‘D’ has unrealistic awareness

  1. Which of the following should be avoided by a teacher of special education?

(1) Student, competencies, qualities and deficiencies should not be neglected.

(2) Ignorance about the aids, apparatus (devices) and equipments needed for children with special needs.

(3) No consideration about mentality of children with special needs.

(4) Take more efforts in providing guidance of experts to these children.

  1. Who gave more emphasis on study of pair, emotions and imagination and laid the foundation of psychology based on scientific stand (role)?

(1) Wilhem Wundt

(2) Charlts Darwin

(3) J.B. Wastson

(4) Loyd Morgan

  1. Which theory was put forth by Bagley?

(1) Theory of Transfer

(2) Theory of Identical Components

(3) Theory of Generalization

(4) Theory of Ideals

  1. Who has given the following specifications of teaching?

(A) Descriptive

(B) Effective based

(C) Objective based

(D) Idealistic

(1) Marsha Weil and Bruce Joyee

(2) B. O. Smith

(3) Pearl and Shoose

(4) Hilda Taba

84.Who was the founder of Model of school Learning?

(1) Schriven

(2) Cronbach

(3) Suppe

(4) John B. Carol

  1. Which of the following factors affect the process, of interaction between teachers and students?

(A) Various groups of children in classroom

(B) Personality of teacher and student

(C) Motivation for students to learn

(D) Teacher’s viewpoint of looking at the students

(1) A, B, C

(2) B, C, D

(3) A, B, C, D

(4) A, C, D

  1. When the school children participate in drama for the first time and forget the dialogue because of the crowd in the theatre, then this happens because of________causative factor in recall.

(1) Physical and Mental Fatigue

(2) Association

(3) Tendency of Mind

(4) Emotional Hindrance

  1. ‘Companionship based Motivation’ is factor of which Motivation?

(1) Physiological Motivation

(2) Personal Motivation

(3) Sociological Motivation

(4) An of the above

  1. Which of the following is an external factor of controlling attention?

(1) Interest

(2) Immediate Needs

(3) Habit

(4) Change (Transformation)

  1. Which of the following is included in teaching process?

(A) Imparting New Knowledge

(B) Developing Skills

(C) Giving Motivation to Thoughts

(D) Emotional Development

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, C, D

(3) C, D, B

(4) A, C, D

  1. Which of the following is incorrect point while writing the specification of objectives?

(1) Expected behavioral change should be visible.

(2) Limits and quality (level) of skill should be clearly stated.

(3) Many expected changes should be written in one sentence.

(4) Specification should be written in singular form.

 

PART-C: MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

 

  1. If a(a+b) = 2418, b(a+b) = 3666, then b – a =?

(1) 16

(2) 78

(3) 1248

(4) 61

  1. The largest 4 digit cube from the following numbers is________.

(1) 9261

(2) 9100

(3) 9999

(4) 9299

  1. The maximum numbers of bisectors and perpendicular bisectors drawn to the line segment are respectively_______.

(1) One, Infinite

(2) Infinite, one

(3) One, Two

(4) Two, Two

  1. The number of rational numbers between any two rational numbers is_______.

(1) Infinite

(2) Zero

(3) One

(4) Two

  1. The supplementary angle of an angle between the North and East-South directions, is_____.

(1) 1350

(2) 450

(3) 900

(4) 250

  1. If number is divided by 4, 5, 6, then remainder is 3, what will be the smallest three digit number?

(1) 103

(2) 163

(3) 123

(4) 133

  1. 83 * 39 is divisible by 11, then the digit in the place of 8 is:

(1) 9

(2) 3

(3) 0

(4) 1

  1. After getting two successive discounts, a shirt with a list of Rs. 150 is available at Rs. 105. If the second discount is 12.5% then the first discount is:

(1) 20%

(2) 25%

(3) 30%

(4) 35%

  1. A cuboid shaped tank of length 4m, breadth 1.5m and height 1m is filled completely with water. How many buckets of 8 lit capacity. Will required to empty the tank?

(1) 570

(2) 750

(3) 870

(4) 780

  1. Rs. 1,200 at simple interest amounts to Rs. 1,440 after 4 years. If rate of interest increased by 45% then the amount is:

(1) Rs. 2.032

(2) Rs. 1,632

(3) Rs. 2,440

(4) Rs. 4,320

  1. A sum of money become three times itself at compound interest in six monthes. Then rate of interest is:

(1) 300%

(2) 200%

(3) 800%

(4) 600%

  1. The measures of angles of a quadrilateral are in the proportion 4 : 16 : 8 : 20. Then the quadrilateral is:

(1) a square

(2) a trapezium

(3) a parallelogram

(4) a rhombus

  1. Plants belonging to fungi are______.

(1) all autotrophic

(2) all parasitic

(3) all saprophytic

(4) either parasites or saprophytes

  1. Basicity of Phosphoric Acid is_____.

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

  1. If a ball is dropped from a top of a building reaches the bottom in 3 seconds, then the height of building is______.

(1) 27.4m

(2) 27m

(3) 49m

(4) 44.1m

  1. Sac like structure of Golgy body are termed as______.

(1) Lamella

(2) Cistermae

(3) cristae

(4) Vesicles

  1. I gram-mole of heavy water is equal to______ heavy water.

(1) 18 gram

(2) 19 gram

(3) 3 gram

(4) 20 gram

  1. When water is heated from 00C, its volume_____.

(1) increases

(2) decreases till 40C

(3) Remains the same

(4) First increases then decreases

  1. Number of milk teeth, which are replaced in man?

(1) 20

(2) 28

(3) 12

(4) 32

  1. Titan is a moon or satellite of:

(1) Mars

(2) Venus

(3) Jupiter

(4) Saturn

  1. Movement of leaves of Mimosa (Touch me not) is due to:

(1) seismonasty

(2) thermonasty

(3) Photonasty

(4) nyctinasty

  1. If the speed of car becomes 3 times then the kinetic energy of car becomes_____times.

(1) 3

(2) 6

(3) 9

(4) 12

  1. The first qrganic ever prepared in laboratory from inorganic compounds is _____.

(1) urea

(2) ethyl alcohol

(3) mathane

(4) ethane

  1. Putrefaction means decomposition of______.

(1) Carbohydrates by aerobic micro-organisms

(2) Fats by aerobic micro- organisms

(3)  Carbohydrates by anaerobic micro-organisms

(4) Proteins by anaerobic micro-organisms

  1. What is the momentum of a body mass 100g having kinetic energy 20J?

(1) 2 kg m/s

(2) ½ kg m/s

(3) 20 kg m/s

(4) 40 kg m/s

26.Yellow Phosphorus is stored in_______

(1) Kerosene

(2) water

(3) Ether

(4) Alcohol

  1. Fruits and flowers gain their orange and yellow colour through______

(1) Leucoplasts

(2) Chloroplasts

(3) Chromoplasts

(4) Protoplasts

  1. pH scale is also called as______ scale.

(1) Kelvin

(2) Sorenson

(3) Avogadro

(4) Levis

  1. The sure test for magnetism is________

.(1) attraction

(2) Repulsion

(3) Both attraction and repulsion

(4) Strength of magnet

  1. If four daughter cells after meiosis have 3 chromosomes each, then the mother cell would have_____ chromosomes.

(1) 12

(2) 3

(3) 6

(4) 46

  1. What is the absolute temperature of 270 C?

(1) 300k

(2) 30k

(3) -300k

(4) 246K

  1. The relative atomic masses of many elements are not whole numbers because_______

(1) They cannot be determined very accurately

(2) Atoms ionize during determination

(3) of the existence of isotopes

(4) of the presence of impurities.

  1. ‘Escherichia Coli’ bacteria in human intestine help to synthesize______.

(1) Vitamin ‘B’ and  ‘D’

(2) Vitamin ‘B’ and ‘C’

(3) Vitamin ‘A and ‘K’

(4) Vitamin ‘B’ and ‘K’

  1. Which of the following is not derived from the sun’s energy?

(1) Geothermal Energy

(2) Tidal Energy

(3) Wood Energy

(4) Fossil Fules

  1. Water is used as a coolent because of its______

(1) Law density

(2) High specific heat

(3) Low specific heat

(4) High density

  1. The Earth Summit held in Rio-de-Janier (1992) emphasized the need for:

(1) control air pollution

(2) control global warming

(3) conservation of biodiversity

(4) protection of Antarctica region

  1. If the length of wise and its area of area cross section is halved then its rwesistance will be______.

(1) halved

(2) unchanged

(3) doubled

(4) four times

  1. Maximum permissible noise as per Noise Pollution Rule 2000 in industrial area is ______.

(1) 75 dB

(2) 65 dB

(3) 55 dB

(4) 45 dB

  1. The strong smelling substance added to LPG is______.

(1) ethanol

(2) ethanol

(3) ethyl mereaptan

(4) ethyl butane

  1. of the following is not correct ?

(1) Weight of body having mass 1kg = 9.8N

(2) Momentum is a vector quantity

(3) Force is a scaler quantity

(4) Momentum is conserved in the absence of external force

 

PART-C : SOCIAL STUDIES

 

  1. Earlier______ was the main source of income for the British Government.

(1) Trade

(2) Cash Crops

(3) Land Revenue

(4) Taxes on Textile Industry

  1. The main consequence of the revoli of 1857 was_____

(1) Railways was introduced in India

(2) The rule of British East india Company Started in India

(3) Queen Victoria took over the administration og England in her hands

(4) Queen Victoria issued a proclaimation addressing the Indians.

93.The stone age cave painting found at ____ in Madhya Pradesh are famous.

(1) Ajanta

(2) Bhimbetka

(3) Verud

(4) Karala

  1. Who advised the people to have faith in their intellect and do not rely on someone eles’s saying’?

(1) Roger Bacon

(2) Dante

(3) Shakespeare

(4) Gallileo

  1. The treaty of Bassein (or Vasai) was signed between______and____.

(1) Tipu Sultan and British

(2) Peshwa Bajirao II and British

(3) Raghunathrao and British

(4) The Peshwa and Portuguese

  1. Who was not the leader of Prarthna Samaj?

(1) Atmaram Tarkhadkar

(2) R.G Bhandarkar

(3) G.G. Agarkar

(4) Justice M.G. Ranade

  1. Why did Shivaji Maharaj sacked especially Surat?

(1) Surat was ,big port

(2) He wanted to teach lesson to mighty Mughals

(3) He Wanted to give blow to Mighal Empire

(4) Surat was economically properous

  1. what was the main characteristic of the Battel of Plassey in 1775?

(1) British took disadvantage of trade concessions

(2) Conflict between Siraj-ud-Daulah and British began

(3) The British won the battle by treachery and deceit

(4) The Britich Lured Mir Jafar by promising lto make him the Nawab of Bemgal

  1. Who rebelled against the British in Konkan?

(1) The Fond Sawants

(2) The ramoshis

(3) The Marathas

(4) The gadkaris

  1. Indian Renaissance mainly is_______.

(1) Curious and Analytical Approach

(2) Ratiobalism

(3) Intellectual Awakening

(4) Acientific Attitide

  1. In letter half of 16th century trampling of rights of subject started in Europe because____

(1) The rituals of the clergymen

(2) Monarchies became very powerful

(3) Influence of feudal Lords

(4) No motivation from renaissance

  1. What was the main reason behi9nd the increasing tension between Americal Colonies and England?

(1) Custom Cheeks increased

(2) Tax was imposed on sugar that was imported to America from West Indies

(3) Presence of the British troops in America

(4) Stamp duty was levied on newspaper legal documents and playing cards

  1. Out of these, which duo is not French?

(1) Montesquieq – Voltaire

(2) Mazini – Carvour

(3) Roussaeu – Montesquieu

(4) Voltaire – Roussaeu

  1. Africa is regarded as ‘Black Continent because______.

(1) People were black skinned

(2) Land was black

(3) Most of the part was unknown

(4) Racial discrimination was practiced there

105.The diffrence between two world wars was of_______ years.

(1) Twenty

(2)Twenty Five

(3) Fifteen

(4) Ten

  1. Out of these, which was not revolutionay Organization?

(1) Abhinav Bharat

(2) Anushilan Samiti

(3) Arya Samaj

(4) Yugantar

  1. ____ was president of America during 1st World War.

(1) Truman

(2) Churchili

(3) Woodrow Wilson

(4) Roosevelt

  1. ____ was the first individual satyagrahi.

(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Sardar Vallabjbjai Patel

(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(4) Vinoba Bhave

  1. Head Quarter of League of Nations was at ____.

(1) New York

(2) London

(3) Geneva

(4) Hague

  1. The ‘Panchasheel Principles’ were put forth by ____ in 1954.

(1) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

(2) Pandit Jawaharlal Neheru

(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  1. The security council of the United Nations has ___ permanent members.

(1) Four

(2) Six

(3) Five

(4) Ten

  1. The countries that are free from external control and supreme with regard to internal matters, carrying on their work independently are called ____.

(1) Sovreign

(2) Independent

(3) Developing

(4) Developed

  1. The Vice President is the Ex-officio-chairman of the ____.

(1) Loksabha

(2) Judiciary

(3) Parliament

(4) Rajyasabha

  1. Who among the following ois not the assistant Officer of the Municipal Commissioner?

(1) Deputy Commissioner

(2) City Manager

(3) Medical Officer

(4) Deputy Mayor

  1. Which high court has jurisdiction over the Union Teritory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(1) Mumbai

(2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Nagpur

  1. Which among the following is included in Para Military Forces?

(1) Border Security Force

(2) Army

(3) Navy

(4) Air Force

  1. Milind has completed 13 years of his age. After how many years from now will he get the right vote?

(1) 3 years

(2) 5 years

(3) 8 years

(4) 6 years

  1. Who has the authority to appoint the Election Commisioner of India?

(1) The Prime Minister

(2) The President

(3) The Central Law Minister

(4) Parliament

  1. Out of these, who is not associate with non-allignment movement?

(1) Marshal Tito

(2) Gamal Abdul Naser

(3) Sukarno

(4) Truman

  1. The Cluster of Stars known as ____.

(1) Milky Way

(2) Galaxy

(3) Nebula

(4) Cluster of Stars

  1. On the new moon days and full moon days tide is called _____.

(1) Neap Tide

(2) Spring Tide

(3) Polar Tide

(4) Equatorial Tide

  1. For the launching things in space is used ____.

(1) Rocket

(2) Satellite

(3) Skylab

(4) Chandrayan

  1. Richter Scale is a unit of measuring the magnitude os a/an –

(1) Earth Quake

(2) Volcano

(3) Earth Quake

(4) Creation of Plate

  1. Alluminium is braught from –

(1) Copper

(2) Boxcite

(3) Iron

(4) Magnese

  1. Research is a ____ activity.

(1) Primary

(2) Secondary

(3) Tertiary

(4) Quatarnary

  1. ____ is one of the highest dam in the world.

(1) Hirakund

(2) Jaikwadi

(3) Bhakra-Nangal

(4) Tungbhadra

  1. Kath is made from _____ tree.

(1) Teak

(2) Deodar

(3) Haldu

(4) Khair

  1. _____ is the highest peak in the Satpuda Mountain Rangers.

(1) Kalsubai

(2) Dhoopgad

(3) Mahendragiri

(4) Animudi

  1. Which country is the origin of Mangrove Tree.

(1) India

(2) Nepal

(3) Chaina

(4) Myanmar

  1. ____ is the historical city loicated along the Olonga River?

(1) Venice

(2) Neples

(3) Milan

(4) Turin

  1. ___ is the largest island in the world?

(1) Srilanka

(2) Ireland

(3) Green Land

(4) Australia

  1. ____ is the Mountain Range is located along the Western Coast of South America.

(1) Himalaya

(2) Andes

(3) Alpas

(4) Rocky

  1. According to area India is the ____ largest country in the world.

(1) Fifth

(2) Sicth

(3) Seventh

(4) Eighth

  1. The capital of Andaman and Nicobar Island is ___

(1) Port Blair

(2) Kavratti

(3) Delhi

(4) Silvassa

  1. The Indira Gandhi Canel is irrigats north-west ____.

(1) Gujarat

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(4) Madhya Pradesh

  1. The highest peak ‘Gurushikhar’ is in ____ Mountain.

(1) Vindhya

(2) Satpuda

(3) Aravalli

(4) Himalaya

  1. Sweet water Koleru Lake is in ____ state.

(1) Odisha

(2) Kerala

(3) Tamilnadu

(4) Andhra Pradesh

  1. ____ is the western flowing river in Inbdian Plateu?

(1) Narmada

(2) Kerishna

(3) Sabarmati

(4) Kaveri

  1. Which is an unit of measuring sea depth?

(1) Meter

(2) Rishter

(3) Fathom

(4) Feet

  1. Australia Grassland is known as –

(1) Pampus

(2) Downs

(3) Prairies

(4) Velds

  1. ___ is Active Volcano.

(1) Vensuvius

(2) Killomanjaro

(3) Katmai

(4) Fujiyama

  1. The imaginary ;ines joining placers of equal temperature are known as ____

(1) Isobars

(2) Isohytes

(3) Isotherms

(4) Contours

  1. ____ tree is foubd in Equatorial Forest.

(1) Mahogany

(2) Teak

(3) Palash

(4) Khair

  1. ____ people are found in Central and Eastern Part of Asis

(1) Negrioids

(2) Mongoloids

(3) Bushmanoids

(4) Australoids

  1. ___ is an important highway, that connects North America and South America?

(1) The Trans Canadian Highway

(2) The Grand Truck Road

(3) The Pan American Highway

(4) Stwert Highway

  1. Suez Canel Route is vary important because _____.

(1) it is at sea level

(2) it is connect Mumbai and London

(3) it saves the distance and time

(4) it is a private canel

  1. ___ is centre in all kinds of development.

(1) Region

(2) Man

(3) Nature

(4) Transportation

  1. ___ country is one of the founding member of SAARC

(1) Chaina

(2) Myanmar

(3) Indonesia

(4) Nepal

  1. Iron and Steel industries are locate near ____.

(1) Coal fields

(2) Water Supply Regions

(3) Market Place

(4) Electricity

 

Anewer:

English

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 3
  5. 3
  6. 4
  7. 3
  8. 1
  9. 2
  10. 3
  11. 4
  12. 3
  13. 2
  14. 2
  15. 4
  16. 3
  17. 2
  18. 1
  19. 4
  20. 3
  21. 2
  22. 1
  23. 4
  24. 1
  25. 1
  26. 1
  27. 3
  28. 4
  29. 3
  30. 3

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 4
  6. 3
  7. 2
  8. 4
  9. 1
  10. 4
  11. 2
  12. 3
  13. 2
  14. 4
  15. 2
  16. 2
  17. 3
  18. 3
  19. 1
  20. 4
  21. 1
  22. 3
  23. 2
  24. 3
  25. 2
  26. 4
  27. 4
  28. 2
  29. 3

 

SOCIAL STUDIES

  1. 4
  2. 4
  3. 1
  4. 4
  5. 4
  6. 1
  7. 1
  8. 2
  9. 3
  10. 1
  11. 2
  12. 3
  13. 3
  14. 1
  15. 4
  16. 2
  17. 1
  18. 4
  19. 1
  20. 1
  21. 3
  22. 2
  23. 4
  24. 4
  25. 1
  26. 4

117.3

  1. 3
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 2
  5. 4
  6. 1
  7. 3
  8. 2
  9. 4
  10. 1
  11. 3
  12. 2
  13. 4
  14. 1
  15. 3
  16. 2
  17. 1
  18. 4
  19. 2
  20. 3
  21. 4
  22. 1
  23. 1
  24. 2
  25. 1
  26. 4
  27. 2
  28. 3
  29. 1
  30. 3
  31. 2
  32. 4
  33. 2