MPSC Assistant Commissioner [Drugs] Gr-A Screening Test- 2012 Question paper

1. What is true of affinity tags?

(1) Affinity tags are long pepetide sequences

(2) Affinity tags have 4 consecutive tyrosine residues

(3) Affinity tags have 6 conse4cutive histidine residues

(4) Affinity tags have 8 different amino acid residues.

2. Which anticoagulants are permitted to be used for strong whole Human Blood as per IP?

(a) Anticoagulant Citrate Dextrose4 solution (ACD)

(b) Anticoagulant Citrate Phosphete Dextrose solution (ACPD)

(c) Low Molecular Weight Heparins (LMWHs)

(d) Sodium Warfarin

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

3. Place the steps involved in hemostasis in the correct order of their occurrence:

(a) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

(b) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

(c) Activation of intrinsic or extrinsic pathway

(d) Formation of prothrombinase

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (c), (d) and (b)

(3) (c), (d), (b) and (a)

(3) (c), (b), (d) and (a)

4. What is the correct combination of temperature and duartion of storage respectively for preservation of Cryoprecipitate?

(1) -20 degree Celsius for 6 month

(2) -20 degree Celsius for 9 month

(c) -30 degree Celsius for 9 month

(d) -30 degree Celsius for 12 month

5. What is the maximum volume of blood advised to be donated within consecutive period of 12 months?

(1) 1.0 L

(2) 1.2 L

(3) 1.5 L

(4) 1.8 L

6. Which chemical is released by platelets when they adhere to the damaged wall?

(1) Histamine

(2) 5 – Hydrooxytryptamine

(3) Acetylcholine

(4) Adrenalin

7. How many ty7pes of antigens have been detected on the surface of Red Blood cells?

(1) Five

(2) Ten

(3) Fifty

(4) More than one hundred

8. In which disease, Type -IV Hypersensitivity reaction causes chronic intestinal inflammation and obstruction?

(1) Contact dermattis

(2) Rheumatoid arthritis

(3) Crohn disease

(4) Multiple sclerosis

9. What is not true of the Haemolytic disease of newborns ?

(a) It can affect malnourished newborns.

(b) Causes Jaundice.

(c) Occurs because of incompatible blood transfusion in newborns.

(d) Can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti – D aggutinnins just after delivery

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

10. When is HBIG administrated to an infant born to HBs Ag positive mother?

(1) Within 7 days after birth

(2) Within 1 day after birth

(3) Within 8 hours after birth

(4) Within 12 hours after birth

11. What is not true of the composition of blood?

(a) Plasma forms 91.5% of blood

(b) WBCs are largely responsible for the visosity of blood

(c) Albummins form the major group of plasma proteins

(d) Macrophages are a type of circulating RBCs.

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

12. Which hemopoietic growth regular conversion of myloid stem cells to myloblasts?

(1) Colony Forming Unit – Erythrocyte

(2) Colony Forming Unit – Leukocyte

(3) Colony Forming Unit – Granulocyte Macrophage

(4) Colony Forming Unit – Erythropoietin

13. What is not true of the cord stem cells?

(1) They are easily collected

(2) They are ore in stem cells than in red bone narrow

(3) The match between and recipient has to be exact in transplant

(d) Less likely to transmit infections

14. What is not true of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

(1) It is fast and simple

(2) Its activators are in direct contact with blood

(3) Outside tissue damage is not needed.

(4) Contact with collagen fibres activates factor XII.

15. The following is true about anaphylactic reactions :

(a) Occurs within a few minutes after after exposure to allegen in a previously sensitised person.

(b) IgE antibodies and must cells play an important role

(c) Rheumatoid Arthritis is an example

(d) Penicillin can cause it in a few people

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

16. Which organism is known to cause Lymphogranuloma Venereum in both the sexes?

(1) Neisseris gonorrhoeae

(2) Trichomonas vaginalis

(3) Treponema pallidium

(4) Chlamydia Chlamydia trachomatis

17. What is true of the Genital Herpes?

(a) It is not curable

(b) It is recurrent

(c) Caused by HSV – 2

(d) Chancres are produced in advanced stages

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

18. How muck minimum percent Hemoglobin content (W / V) should whole Human Blood contain?

(1) 11.1

(2) 10.2

(3) 9.7

(4) 8.5

19. Which type of antibody causes anaphylaxis leading to vasacular dilation and edema leading to inflammation?

(1) IgE

(2) IgA

(3) IgD

(4) IgM

20. What is the chemical nature of antigens present on the surface of RBCs?

(1) Phospholipid

(2) Glycolipid

(3) Lipopoly saccharide

(4) Glycoprotein

21. Which organ or ots part is affected by ureplasma urealyticum?

(1) Ureter

(2) Urethra

(3) Nephron

(4) Glomerules

22. 22. HIV mainly damages following types of cells.

(1) Halper T cells

(2) Natural Killer Cells

(3) Red blood cells

(4) Eosinophils

23. Which of the following is / are activated by tromboplastin?

(a) Fibrinolytic system

(b) Extrinsic coagulation pathway

(c) Platelet aggregation

(d) Greft Vs host reaction

(1) (b) only

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

24. A hematocrit of 40 indicates the following :

(1) Blood forms 40% of body fluids

(2) RBCs form 40% of the total volume of blood.

(3) RBCs, WBCs and platelets together form 40% of the total volume of blood

(4) Hemoglobin is 40% lower than the normal range.

25. Fill in the blank.

Tissue type plasminogen activator (t- PA) that cleaves plasminogen to form plasmin is a ____ enzyme.

(1) Nuclease

(2) Amylase

(3) Protease

(4) Lipase

26. What is the quantum of formed elements in whole blood?

(1) 40%

(2) 45%

(3) 55%

(4) 60%

27. Which are the most important constituents of Fibrin sealent kit?

(1) Fibrinogen and thrombin

(2) Prothrombin and thrombin

(3) Fibrin and Fibrinogen

(4) Vitamin K and thromboplastin

28. When did the Government of India publish National Blood Policy?

(1) 1950

(2) 1991

(3) 2002

(4) 2010

29. Which is the most common viral antigen found on the surface of HIV?

(1) P 24

(2) P 12

(3) P 3128

(4) P 8080

31. What are the anti – viral drugs recommended for treatment of H1N1 viral infections?

(a) Oseltamivir

(b) Zanamivir

(c) Acyclovir

(d) Lamivudin

 

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

32. What is the threshold limit value for chloroform at a workplace?

(1) 2 ppm

(2) 3 ppm

(3) 5 ppm

(4) 10 ppm

33. What is the main site of action for steroid hormons?

(1) Cytoplasm

(2) Plasma membrance

(3) Nucleus

(4) Mitochondria

34. In which of the following organs Fluoride and Lead get concentrated?

(1) Body fat

(2) Intravasular space

(3) Tiagabine

(4) Gabapentine

35. Which of the following drugs is given during hypertensive emergencies as a IV infusion?

(1) Nifedipine

(2) Nitroglycerine

(3) Sodium Nitroprusside

(4) Propranolol

36. What is not true of the mechanism of action of local anaesthetics ?

(a) They block conduction of Na+ ions.

(b) A resting nerve is very sensitive to its action.

(c) Small unmyelinated C fibres are blocked before the larger fibres.

(d) The drug enters the cell in charged form.

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d)

37. What is the duration of each cycle of non rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep?

(1) 90 min

(2) 10 min

(3) 60 min

(4) 30 min

38. What is not true of primaquine?

(a) It is not useful in treatment of symptomatic malaria.

(b) It is used to eradicate the hypnozoites of P. vivax and P. ovale.

(c) Used for prophylaxis in healthy travellers

(d) Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

39. What do untoward reactions to sulfonamides include?

(a) Haemolytic anaemia

(b) Discoloured teeth

(c) Crysaluria

(d) Kernicteurs

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a)), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

40. Which of the following Chelators is preferred in the treatment of Wilson’s disease?

(1) Unithiol

(2) D – Penicllamine

(3) EDTA

(4) Deferoxamine

41. Which of the following injectable local anesthetics is administered only in subarachnoid space ?

(1) Procaine

(2) Amithocaine

(3) Bupivacaine

(4) Lignocaine

42. On which of the opiod receptors does methadone act predominantly?

(1) Delta

(2) Kappa

(3) Mu

(4) Sigma

43. Which of the following metals is primarily bound in skin, hair and nails?

(1) Lead

(2) Copper

(3) Zinc

(4) Arsenic

44. Which of the following classes of drugs are used in dry unproductive cough?

(a) Mucolytics

(b) Expectorants

(c) Anti – tussives

(d) Anti – histaminics

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (c) and (b)

(4) (c) and (d)

45. What is the major route of absorption for elemental Mercury?

(1) Respiratory tracts

(2) Gastrointestinal tract

(3) Skin

(4) Eyes

46. Haemolysis with primaquine due to G – 6 PD deficiency is an example of:

(1) Genetic defect leading to variation in drug action

(2) Disease induced modification in drug action

(3) Cross tolerance reaction

(4) Tachyphylaxis

47. What is true penicillamine?

(a) It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic

(b) It is orally absorbed

(c) It chelates copper, mercury, zinc and lead

(d) Long term use may cause cutaneous lesions

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (b)

48. Which of the following are the features of a cardioselective beta blocker?

(a) Does not cause dyslipidaemia

(b) Less liable to impair exercise capacity

(c) Safer in diabetics (as compared to non – selective beta blocker)

(d) Suppresses essential tremor..

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (B) AND (C)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

49. In a patient suffering from liver cirrhosis, the following effects on drug action may occur.

(a) Biovailability of drugs undergoing high pass metabolism

(b) Protein binding of acidic drugs may decrease.

(c) Dose of drugs getting metabolised by hepatic microsomal enzymes has to be reduced.

(d) Dose of drugs excreted in an unchanged form has to be reduced.

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

50. Which of the following drugs is known to cause Raye’s Syndrome ?

(1) Phenacetin

(2) Sulindac

(3) Dicofenac

(4) Aspirin

51. What does Ededate Calcium Disidium effectively treat?

(1) Lead Poisoning

(2) Mercury Poisoning

(3) Arsenic poisoning

(4) Artherosclerotic plaques

(1) (a)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (d)

52. Which of the following insulin preparations of bovine origin is short acting?

(1) Insulin – Zinc suspension amorphus (semi – lente)

(2) Insulin – Zinc suspension (lente)

(3) Insulin – Zinc suspension crystalline (ultra-lente)

(4) Isophane

53. Which substance is antagonized by Naloxone?

(1) Propranolol

(2) Labetalol

(3) Opioid receptor

(4) Salbutamol

54. What is not true of Aspirin?

(a) It is a very safe drug

(b) It is a selectiveCOX₂ inhibitor

(c) It can induce platelet aggregation

(d) It can induce asthma

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (c)

55. What are important features of amoxicillin?

(a) It is penicillinase resistant

(b) It is bactericidal for both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

(c) Incidence of diarrhoea is less

(d) Indicated in respiratory injections

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

56. What is commonest cause of maleria in the world?

(1) P. Vivex

(2) P. Ovale

(3) P. Falciparum

(4) P. Malaeria

57. Complete the sentence :

Tyndal developed a method for control of microorganisms called as Tyndallization in which ____

(1) Intermittent sterilization is done

(2) Boiling is done

(3) Autocleving is done

(4) Pasteurization is done

58. The Epsilometer test is employed to :

(a) find severity of infection

(b) determine the efficacy of antibiotic treatment

(c) find the titre of the antibodies

(d) determine the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic.

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (d)

(4) (a), (d)

59. Man is dead end for:

(1) Typhoid

(2) Diphtheria

(3) Rabies)

(4) AIDS

60. Stromy clot reaction is typically seen in infection by:

(1) Borrelia

(2) Treponema

(3) Clustradium welchii

(4) H. influenza

61. Development of the concept of aseptic technique was divised by:

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Joseph Lister

(3) Robert Koch

(4) Paul Ehrlich

62. Scintillation counter is used for which tests :

(a) ELISA

(b) RIA

(c) CIE

(d) (H1N1)

(1) only (a)

(2) only (b)

(3) both (c), (d)

(4) only (c)

63. In microorganism growth is an important metabolic process involving the following steps. Arrange them in their chronological order.

(a) Cell division

(b) Morphogenesis

(c) Differentiation

(d) Expansion

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (d), (c), (b)

64. Which cell is involved in the specific immunse response?

(1) Monocytes

(2) Lymphocytes

(3) Endocytes

(4) Nucleocytes

65. What is the temperature – pressure combination for an autoclave?

(1) 100 degrees c and 4 psi

(2) 121 degrees c and 15 psi

(3) 131 degrees c and 9 psi

(4) 114 degrees c and 3 psi

66. The primary effect of ultra – violet radiations is on micribial :

(1) carbohydrates

(2) enzymes

(3) nucleic acids

(4) cell walls

67. Urinary tract infection is most often caused by:

(1) E coli

(2) Proteus

(3) Klebsiella

(4) Pseudomonas

68. A fever inducing substance is known as :

(1) exotoxin

(2) endotoxin

(3) pyrogens

(4) enterotoxin

69. In India, viral hepatatis is most commonly caused by:

(1) Hepatatis A

(2) Hepatatis B

(3) Non A Non B Hepatatis

(4) Delta Hepatatis

70. Hydrophobia is caused by rabies virus, its incubation period seems to be related to :

(1) Vaccination

(2) Distance between site of bite and CNS (Central Nervos system)

(3) Types of Vector

(4) Infecting dose of virus

71. What is laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever based on ?

(a) Blood culture

(b) Urine Culture

(c) Widal test

(d) Stool culture

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

72. Citric acid is the primary metabolite obtained from

(1) saccharomyces cervisiae

(2) Aspergillus niger

(3) Corynebacterium glutamicum

(4) Xanthamonas species

73. The sugar moeity in DNA and RNA, respectively are :

(1) ribulose and deoxyribulose

(2) deoxyribose and ribose

(3) deoxyribofuranose and furanose

(4) ribose and deoxyribose

74. FMC corporation has developed patented aquesous enteric coating called as:

(1) Aquateric

(2) Aquateric and Eudragit

(3) HPMCP 50

(4) Aquateric, Eudragit and HP-555

75. Excess Glucose is stored in the body by the process of :

(1) glycogenolysis

(2) glycogenesis

(3) lipolysis

(4) gluconeogenesis