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Satara Zilla Parishad Set One Question Papers with Answer Key

Panchayat Raj is an innovative experiment in the formation of modern India.

Balwantrai Mehta Committee has recommended the three-tier Panchayat Raj system for rural development in rural development.

Accordingly, the Government of Maharashtra agreed on 1 May 1962 the Maharashtra Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samities Act of 1961, and on the district level, the Zilla Parishad, the Panchayat Samiti at the group level and the Gram Panchayat at the village level, thus formed a three-tier Panchayat Raj.

Self Satara Zilla Parishad (ZP Satara) was established in May, 1962 under the guidance of Yashwantraoji Chavan. Swasaheb Parlekar was the first president of Satara Zilla Parishad. Today, 11 panchayat samiti and 1501 grampanchayats are working for rural areas. Women have been given power in the 73rd incident amendment and the Gram Sabhas have been giving extra rights to the Gram Panchayats. The Satara Zilla Parishad has always been ahead in any new government scheme, campaign, campaign.
ZP Satara relesed many job notification Every year.Every Job’s post have particular exam Syllebuss with Different Questions.Here we provide some important Questions with Answer key for ZP Satara’s Recruiment Exams.

 

1. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion ?
(a) It is an exhaordinary procedure which sets a side the normal business of the House.

(b) Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent
public importance.

(c) The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.

(d) It must be supported by not less than 1/10 members for inhoduction.

Answer Options :

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a),(b) and (c)
(4) (b),(c) and (d)

Ans:-1

2.Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Commission for STs ?

(a) It came into existance in 2004.

(b) In order to safeguard the interests of the STs more effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs, by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SC’s and ST’S. This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.

(c) The Central Government and the State Government are required to consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting the STs.

Answer Option :

(1) Only (b) (2) @) and (c) (3) (a) and (4) All

Ans:-4

3.Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The Public Senrice Commissions are advisory bodies. It is open to the government to accept the recommendation or depart from it.

(b) The Government is under an obligation to explain the reasons why in any particular case the recommendation of the commission has been overridden.

Answer Options :

(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) or (b)

Ans:-3

4.Which of the following statements regarding speaker of Lok Sabha is/are correct ?

(a) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the Resident.
(b) He/she tenders his/her resignation to the Deputy Speaker.
(c) He/she appoints the Chairperson of the Business Advisory Committee and the Rules Committee.
(d) He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member within six months from the date of his/her election.

Answer Options :

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b),(c) and (d)
(3) Only (b)
(4) Only (c)

Ans:-3

5.Choose the incorrect statement :

(a) In 1947, Sikim became a ‘protectorate’ of India.
(b) In 1974, Sikkim was given the status of an ‘associate state’ of the Indian Union.
(c) 36″‘ Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted to make Sikkim a full-fledged State of the Indian Union.

Answer Options :

(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) None of these

Ans:-4

6.Which one of the following statements is false ?

(1) The Government of India Act 1919 is based on the Montup-Chelmsford Report.
(2) The Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature by the Govt. of India Act 1935
(3) The system of dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act.
(4) Nearly 75 percent of the constitution can be said to be a reproduction of the Govt. of India Act 1935.

Ans:-2

7.The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution was set up under the Chairmanship of Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah during the _________ government.

(1) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(2) H.D. Deve-Gowda
(3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(4) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Ans:-3

8.Which of the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta as well as laid the foundation of central administration in India ?

(1) Charter Act of 1833
(2) Pitts India Act of 1784
(3) Charter Act of 1853
(4) Regulating Act of 1773

Ans:-4

9.The markers of the constitution empowered Parliament (i.e. central government) to reorganise the states by a simple procedure.

Reason (R) :

The grouping of the provinces under the Government of India Acts was based on historical and political reasons rather than the social, cultural or linguistic division of the people themselves.

Answer Options :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans:-1

10.The procedure for the election of the Presidents of India can be modified through an amendment in the Constitution which must be passed by ?

(1) two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha
(2) two thirds majority by the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha
(3) two third majority by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and be ratified by legislatures of atleast one half of the states
(4) Simple majority by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and be ratified by legislatures of atleast one half of the states.

Ans:-3

11. Consider the following statements about PIL :

(a) In Article-32 of the Constitution contains a tool which directly joins the public with judiciary.
(b) In a PIL the right to file a suit is given to public through judicial activism.
(c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit PIL.
(d) In Kalyaneshwari Vs. Union of India, the court cited the misuse of PIL in business conflicts.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) All above

Ans:-4

12.Consider the following statements in reference to the Supreme Court’s judgement on S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India :

(a) The court held that the president could dissolve a State Assembly,. only after parliamentary approval.

(b) In case the parliament fails to approve the proclamation, the Assembly would be reactivated.

(c) Burden lies on the centre to prove that relevant material exist to justify the imposition of the President’s Rule.

Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) Only (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) All of the above

Ans:-4

13.Article 76 of the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions with regard to the appointment and service conditions of the CAG of India
Reason (R) :
He cannot function independently unless he enjoys the constitutional protection.
Answer Options :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans:-4

14.Consider the following statements :

(a) The preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.

(b) In the Bembari case (1960), the Supreme Court opined that preamble is a part of the Constitution.

(c) In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) held that preamble is not a part of the Constitution.

(d) In the LIC of India case (1995) also the Supreme Court again held that the preamble is not an integral part of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) Only a
(2) a and c
(3) b,c and d
(4) a,b and d

Ans:-1

15.The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.
Reason (R) :
The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid.
Answer Option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans:-1

16.Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states ?

(1) Article 1
(2) Article 249
(3) Article 3
(4) Article 169

Ans:-3

17.Which Indian President exercised the Pocket Veto ?

(1) R. Venkataraman
(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(3) Gyani Zail Singh
(4) Fakruddin Ali Ahmed

Ans:-3

18.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India ? (Article-324)

(1) The Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and two more Election Commissioner.
(2) The Election Commission shall consist of Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may from time to time fix.
(3) The Election Commission shall consist of Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as Parliament may from time to time fix.
(4) None of these.

Ans:-2

19.Which of the following statement/s is not correct ?

(1) Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive Principles
(2) Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the certain Directive Principles.
(3) Article – 19 is suspended during National emergency irrespective of the grounds on which emergency is in force.
(4) Article 20 and 21 are intact even during National emergency.

Ans:-3

20.Consider the following statements :

(a) The provision in Article 21(A) makes only elementary education a fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.

(b) In pursuance of Article 21(A), the parliament enacted the Right of children to free and compulsory education (RTE) Act, 2009.

Which of the above sentences is/are correct ?

(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Both
(4) Neither a nor b

Ans:-3

21.Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(a) In India only one Union Territory have Legislative Assembly. i.e. National Capital Territory of Delhi.
(b) Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland, the three North Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha.
(c) In Uttar Pradesh only orle Lok Sabha seat is reserved for scheduled Tribes.

Answer Options :

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) None of the above

Ans:-4

22.Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The provision of joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills.
(b) If the bill under dispute has already lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can be summoned.
(c)The joint sitting can be held if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the president has notified his intention to summon such a sitting.

Answer Options :

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) None of the above

Ans:-4

23.Consider the following statements :

(a)The retired permanent judge of a high court can plead or act before the Supreme Court and the other high courts.
(b)Conduct of High Court judges can be discussed in parliament or in a state legslature at the time of an impeachment motion is under consideration of the parliament .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) Oniy a
(2) Only b
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b

Ans:-3

24.Which of the following is not correct with respect to Constituent Assembly ?

(1) Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
(2) Seats allotted to the British province were to be elected by the members of the provincial assemblies.
(3) The members of the provincial assemblies were elected on a limited franchise.
(4) The representatives of princely states were to be indirectly elected.

Ans:-4

25.Which pair is not correctly matched ?

(1) Appointment of Governor – Article 155
(2) All India Se~ces – Article 312
(3) Budget – Article 110
(4) Public Service Commission for the union and for the states Article 315

Ans:-3

26.The Lok Sabha cannot express lack of confidence in the government in which of the following ways ?

(1) By impeaching of the president for violation of the Constitution.
(2) By not passing a vote of thanks on the Presidenfs address. (3) By rejecting a money bill
(4) By passing a cut motion

Ans:-1

27.In the famous ‘Mandal Case’ (1992) the scope and extent of Article-16(4), which provides for reservation of jobs in favour of backward classes, has been examined thoroughly by the Supreme Court. Which are the following decisions are given by the Supreme Court 7

(a) The court rejected the additional reservation of 10% for poorer sections of higher castes.
(b) The court upheld the constitutional validity of 27% reservation for the OBCs with certain conditions.
(c) The advanced sections among the OBC’s (the creamy layer) should be excluded from the list of beneficiaries of reservation.

Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a,b and c

Ans:-4

28.Which one of the following statement is correct regarding Maharashtra State Election Commission ?

(a) It was set up on 26th April 1994.
(b) It consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
(c) It has the power of superintendence, direction and control of election of the representatives of local self governments to the Vidhan Parishad.

Answer Options :

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) None of the above

Ans:-1

29.The personal system of local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by :

(1) Central Human Resource Department
(2) President
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Parliament

Ans:-4

30.Who among the following is not included in the committee to recommend the Chairman and the members of the National Human Rights Commission ?

(1) Central Home Minister
(2) The Speaker of the Loksabha
(3) The Chairman of the Rajyasabha
(4) Leaders of the opposition in both the houses of parliament

Ans:-3

31.While inquiring the State Morrnation Commission has the powers of civil court in respect of following matters :

(a) summoning and enforcing attendance of persons
(b) receiving evidence on affidavit
(c) requisitioning any public record from any court or office
(d) issuing summons for examination of witnesses

Which of the above are true ?

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) Only b and d

Ans:-3

32.Which one of the following is correct about the amendments carried out in the ‘Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 by the amendment Act of 2006 ?

(1) Increased the number of members of State Human Rights Commission from three to five.
(2) Empowered the National Human Rights Commission to undertake visits to jails with prior intimation.
(3) Provided that the Chairperson of National Commission for ST and SC shall be ex-oficio members of NHRC.
(4) Empowered the Commission to declare the amount of compensation even during the course of enquiry.

Ans:-3

33.Which of the following is the apt description of the nature of India’s party system in the post 1990s ?

(1) Congress system
(2) Congress Govt. in Centre and Coalition Govt. in the States
(3) Coalition Govt. in Centre and bi-or-tri-partite competition in the States
(4) Coalition Govt. at the Centre .

Ans:-3

34.Which kinds of schools do not come under the ambit of the Fundamental Right to Education under Art. 21 A and the Right to Education Act of 2009 ?

(a) aided minority schools
(b) aided non-minority schools
(c) unaided minority schools
(d) unaided non-minority schools.

Answer Options :

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

Ans:-3

35.In which year India Started the Electronic and Digital Photography and Broad-Casting ?

(1) 2016
(2) 2004
(3) At the end of 1980 and In the beginning of 1990
(4) 2010-11

Ans:-3

36.As per the 1985 Anti-defection Act :

(a) defection was banned completely
(b) minor defection was prevented
(c) major defection was permitted
(d) defection of one-third of the elected members was permitted

Answer Options :

(1) a, b, c statements are correct
(2) b, c, d statements are correct
(3) a, c, d statements are correct
(4) a, b statements are correct

Ans:-2

37. Every candidate is required to present following information along with an affidavit while filling nomination paper in an election.

(a) Certificate of age
(b) Punishment of crime
(c) Physical handicap

Answer Options :

(1) a and c the correct options
(2) b and a the correct options
(3) Only b Is the correct options
(4) None of the above

Ans:-3

38.Which among these are important as roles of vernacular press ?

(a) It attracts local readership
(b) People understand political debates in their mother tongue
(c) It has a national orientation
(d) It supports Indian democracy with its vast outreach

Answer Options :

(1) None of the above
(2) All of the above
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (4, (b), and (d)

Ans:-2

39.In the educational institution run by the financial assistance from the government, nobody can be denied admission on the basis of Religion and race etc. This provision is included in the Rights of :
(1) Right to Freedom
(2) Right to Equality
(3) Right to Religious freedom
(4) Right to Cultural and Educational Freedom

Ans:-4

40.In which of the following statements do you find the accurate description of the relationship between political parties and interest groups ?

(a) lnterest groups raise issues and demands specific to various social or interest groups.Political parties use these demands as inputs to formulate their policies and programmes and take political positions.

(b) Interest groups or pressure groups work as mentors to political parties and carry out the task of cadre recruitment for political parties.

(c) Political parties may need to balance varied and sometimes opposing interests that are articulated by interest groups.

(d) lnterest groups use the political parties to achieve their own objectives and goals.

Answer Options :

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b, and c
(4) All of the above

Ans:-4

41.After Independence, In Maharashtra which of the following pressure group was Not Active ?

(1) Farmers pressure groups
(2) Trade Unions
(3) Businessmen’s pressure groups
(4) Caste based organisation

Ans:-1

42.In the 2004 General Elections for Lok Sabha, the Indian National Congress won 145 seats and its allies won 74. The total was well short of majority. With whose ‘outside’ support did the united Progressive Alliance form a minority govt.?

(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Communist Party of Marxist
(c) Trinamool Congress
(d) Rashtriya Janata Dal

Answer Options :

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) c and d

Ans:-3

43.Consider the following statements about Raju Shetty :

(a) He was a member of ZiUa Parishad
(b) He is a founder of Swabhimani Party
(c) He was a member of Legislative Assembly
(d) He is a member of Lok Sabha

Answer Options :

(1) (a), (b), (d) the correct statements
(2) (b), (c), (d) the correct statements
(3) (a), (b), (c) the correct statements
(4) All are correct statemens

Ans:-1

44.Which Committee has been established by the Indian National Congress to exercise control over its Regional Committees ?

(1) Regional Congress Committee
(2) Executive Committee
(3) All India Congress Committee
(4) District Congress Committee

Ans:-3

45.Consider the following statements :

(a)The “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” aims at binding social, regional and gender gaps.
(b)’Sarva Sluksha Abhiyan’ aims at developing childrens potential both spiritually and mentally.
(c)’Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ aims at inculcuting value based learning among students.
(d)’Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ aims at providing education for all children in the age groups of 6 to 18.

Answer Options :

(1) All above statements are correct
(2) (b), (c) and (d) statements are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) statements are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) statements are correct

Ans:-4

46.Consider the following statement regarding “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” :

(a) Poineered by Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indian Government Programme
(c) Started during the regime of Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) A subprogramme of “Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat”

Answer Options :

(1) (a), (b), and (d) the correct options
(2) (a) and (b) the correct options
(3) (b) and (c) the correct option
(4) (b), (c) and (d) the correct options

Ans:-3

47.In which of the following States is the All – India Trinamool Congress recognised as a State Party ?

(1) West Bengal and Odisha
(2) West Bengal and Meghalaya
(3) West Bengal and Assam
(4) West Bengal and Tripura

Ans:-2

48.For Quality Education in universities Kothari Commission has following important suggestions :

(a) Increase expenditure on purchase of Books and Magzines.
(b) To execute students welfare scheme.
(c) To out source admission in Universities.
(d) Emphasis on research in University

Answer Options :

(1) Only (a), (b), (d) statements are correct
(2) Only (b), (c), (d) statements are correct
(3) All the above statement’s are correct
(4) Only (a), (b), (c) statements are correct

Ans:-1

49.Which Ministry of the Central Government is incharge of coordinating the Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) with the help of the SIS (State Implementation Societies) ?

(1) Minishy of Education
(2) Minishy of Social Justice and Empowerment
(3) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(4) Ministry of Women and Child Development

Ans:-3

50.Which of the following political parties were allies of the Indian National Congress in the 1977 elections ?

(a) Communist Party of India
(b) All India Anna DMK
(c) Communist Party of Marxist
(d) Dravida Munnetra Kalagham

Answer Options :

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)

Ans:-1


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