Home / Question Papers / MPSC Workshop Superintendent Government Engineering College Gr-A – 2016 Question Paper

MPSC Workshop Superintendent Government Engineering College Gr-A – 2016 Question Paper

MPSC Workshop Superintendent Government Engineering College Gr-A – 2016 Question Paper

  1. Concurrent Engineering is not related with

(1) DFM

(2) DFMA

(3) Simultaneous Engineering

(4) Sum of Digits Method

  1. “Operators simply load new programs as necessary, to produce different products”, describes

(1) Automatically guided vehicles

(2) Flexible manufacturing system (FMS)

(3) Vision system

(4) Process control

  1. In a CNC program block NO02 GO2 G91 X40 240 …, GO2 and G91 refer to

(1) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental dimension

(2) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension

(3) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension

(4) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension

  1. Which Act of the Parliament defines a ‘trade union’ and governs much of the law on Industrial Relations?

(1) The Trade Union Act, 1955

(2) The Trade Union and Labour Relations Act, 2005

(3) The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Ad, 1991

(4) The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act, 1992

  1. Which of the following is a method of forecasting?

(1) CPM

(2) Moving Average

(3) Merit rating

(4) PMTS

  1. A systematic recording and critical examination of existing method in order to develop new effective method is called

(1) Time study

(2) Linear programming

(3) TPM

(4) Method study

  1. Which of the following is not a function of production planning and control?

(1) Scheduling

(2) Process Planning

(3) Expediting

(4) Replacement Analysis

  1. Break-Even Point is a point of intersection of

(1) Variable Cost and Total Sales lines

(2) Total Cost and Total Sales lines

(3) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost lines

(4) Total Cost and Variable Cost lines

  1. In which of the following years was the Workmen’s Compensation Act introduced?

(1) 1948

(2) 1976

(3) 1923

(4) 1961

  1. The balance of power is not vested with any one group; rather it is maintained between the parties to the “Industrial Relations”. This is the essence of the

(1) Pluralist approach

(2) System approach

(3) Unitary approach

(4) Social approach

  1. Which of the following explains the term ‘Union ballots’?

(1) A ballot is the system by which a union member votes for e.g. Industrial Action

(2) A ballot is the method by which a union expels members

(3) A ballot is the method by which a union recruits members

(4) A ballot is the system by which a union member puts forward information for listing

  1. Which of the following is not connected with employees’ safety and health?

(1) The Factories Act, 1948

(2) The Mines Act, 1952

(3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

(4) The Dock Workers (Safety, Health and Welfare) Act, 1986

  1. The primary purpose of employee safety programme is to preserve the employees’

(1) Mental health

(2) Physical health

(3) Emotional health

(4) All of the above

  1. In Reliability, MTBF stands for

(1) Mean Time Batch Forecasting

(2) Maximum Time Batch Failures

(3) Mean Time between Failures

(4) Mean Time between Force

  1. Which of the following is not the Leverage Ratio?

(1) Acid Test Ratio

(2) Debt Equity Ratio

(3) Assets Coverage Ratio

(4) Debt-Service Coverage Ratio

  1. The angle between the sales income line and the total cost line is called as the

(1) Angle of reflection

(2) Angle of incidence

(3) Angle of repose

(4) None of the above

  1. According to which of the following methods is the depreciation fund more during the early years, when repairs and renewals are not costly?

(1) Sinking Fund Method

(2) Annuity Method

(3) Diminishing Balance Method

(4) Sum of the Year’s Digit Method

  1. Which of the following is not the example of variable cost ?

(1) Direct productive labour

(2) Direct materials

(3) Direct expenses

(4) Administrative expenses

  1. PERT stands for

(1) Product Evaluation Refining Technique

(2) Production Enhancement Review Technique

(3) Peripheral Evaluation Rigid Technique

(4) Program Evaluation Review Technique

  1. Standard Time in Time Study is calculated by which of the following formulae?

(1) ST=OTxR+A

(2) ST=OT+A

(3) ST=R+A

(4) ST=OT+R+A

  1. In work measurement, 1 TMU is equal to

(1) 0-6 min

(2) 0.06 min

(3) 0.006 min

(4) 0-0006 min

  1. Name the scientists who developed the technique of Business Process Re-engineering.

(1) Tolstoy and Ali

(2) Risbood and Marshal

(3) Hammer and Champy

(4) Taylor and Gilbreth

  1. Which of the following techniques is used for work measurement?

(1) Method Study

(2) Time Study

(3) Ergonomics

(4) Productivity Rational Technique

  1. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

(1) Detailed calculations

(2) Convenience

(3) Table of random numbers

(4) Fixed percentage of daily production

  1. Job evaluation is the method of determining the

(1) Relative worth of a job

(2) Skills required of a worker

(3) Contribution of a worker

(4) Effectiveness of various alternatives

  1. For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is C 5,000. The variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sale price is Rs. 30 per piece. The break-even production per month will be

(1) 300

(2) 460

(3) 500

(4) 1,000

  1. The initial cost of an equipment is C 20,000 and it’s life is estimated as 10 years. What is the rate of depreciation, when scrap value after it’s life becomes zero?

(1) Rs. 1,000 per year

(2) Rs. 2,000 per year

(3) Rs. 3,000 per year

(4) Rs. 4,000 per year

  1. Product design deals with

(1) Form and function

(2) Elements and weight

(3) Elements and material

(4) Size and shape

  1. Concurrent Engineering deals with carrying out the following activities at the same time while designing the product:

(1) Design and Sales

(2) Manufacturing and Sales

(3) Design and Re-engineering

(4) Design and Manufacturing

  1. The value is defined as the ratio of function or perfoknance to

(1) Utility

(2) Price

(3) Cost

(4) All of the above

  1. The current trends in manufacturing technology require high quality with acceptable levels of defects with a

(1) Zero-defect philosophy

(2) Zero-error philosophy

(3) Zero-tolerance philosophy

(4) None of the above

  1. In Computer Aided Manufacturing, the elements of CIM system are

(1) Automated

(2) Optimized

(3) Integrated

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following types of layout configurations is/are used in FMS?

(1) In-line

(2) Loop

(3) Ladder

(4) All of the above

  1. The volume of the space created within the virtual surfaces swept by the robot arm at the maximum and the minimum reach is called

(1) Work place

(2) Work space

(3) Work volume

(4) Work area

  1. Which of the following process planning systems uses the similarity among components to retrieve the existing process plans? (1) Generative approach

(2) Decision approach

(3) Variant Process planning system

(4) None of the above

  1. In the Computer Aided Design, the simplest solid objects are termed as

(1) Entities

(2) Primitives

(3) Models

(4) Boxes

  1. Acceptable Quality Level (AQL) is associated with

(1) Producer’s risk

(2) Consumer’s risk

(3) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective

(4) Average Outgoing Quality Limit

  1. A successful TQM program incorporates all except
  2. continuous improvement
  3. employment improvement
  4. benchmarking
  5. centralized decision making authority

(1) Only d

(2) a and b

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

  1. Which of the following is not the basic forging operation?

(1) Upsetting

(2) Heading

(3) Fullering

(4) Staking

  1. The three-position inclinable press is frequently referred to as

(1) Closed-back inclinable press

(2) Open-back inclinable press

(3) Solid-gap press

(4) Gap-frame press

  1. If the die clearance is to be applied to the die opening, it should be added to the

(1) Die

(2) Punch

(3) Template

(4) Stock

  1. Die blocks made in two or more sections are known as

(1) Split die blocks

(2) Sectional die blocks

(3) Dual die blocks

(4) Progressive die blocks

  1. The pocket or resting position of the work piece in a jig or fixture is referred to as a

(1) Rest

(2) Base

(3) Case

(4) Nest

  1. Which of the following is a non-traditional machining process?

(1) Milling

(2) EBM

(3) Drilling

(4) Turning

  1. Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of steel (density = 8000 kg/m3) is carried out successfully by passing a certain current for 0.1 second through the electrodes. The resultant nugget formed is 05 mm in diameter and 1-5 mm thick. If the latent heat of fusion of steel is 1400 kJ/kg and the effective resistance in the welding operation is 200, the current passing through the electrodes is approximately

(1) 1480 A

(2) 3300 A

(3) 4060 A

(4) 9400 A

  1. Match the List I (Welding process) with List I1 (Heat source) and choose the correct alternative from those given below :

         List I                              List II

Welding process           Heat source

  1. Therrnit welding I. Electric arc
  2. Projection welding II. Mechanical work
  3. MIG welding III. Exothermic chemical reaction
  4. Friction welding IV. Ohmic resistance

P       Q        R          S

(1)      IV       II       III          I

(2)      IV       III        I          II

(3)      III         I       IV        II

(4)      III        IV      I          II

  1. The DC power source for arc welding has the characteristic 3V + I = 240 where V = voltage and I = current in Amp. For the maximum arc power at the electrode, voltage should be set at

(1) 20 V

(2) 40 V

(3) 60 V

(4) 80 V

  1. In a DC arc welding operation, the voltage-arc length characteristic was obtained as V, = 20 + 5 L where the arc length L was varied between 5 mm and 7 mm. Here V,, denotes the arc voltage in volts. The arc current was varied from 400 A to 500 A. Assuming linear power source characteristic, the open circuit voltage and the short circuit current for the welding operation are

(1) 45 V, 450 A

(2) 75 V, 750 A

(3) 95 V, 950 A

(4) 150 V, 1500 A

  1. Two 8 mm thick steel plates are placed 5 mm apart and welded by a butt joint. Welding is carried out with voltage of 20 V and speed of 5 ds. Heat transfer efficiency is 0.80. If the heat required to melt steel is 10 ~/mm~ and melting efficiency is 0.625, the weld current (in Amperes) will be

(1) 100

(2) 200

(3) 300

(4) 400

  1. Using direct extrusion process, a round billet of 0100 mm length and 50 mm diameter is extruded. Considering an ideal deformation (no friction and no redundant work) with extrusion ratio of 4 and the average flow stress of material 300 MPa, the extrusion pressure (in MPa) on the ram will be

(1) 416

(2) 624

(3) 700

(4) 832

  1. In a single pass rolling process using 410 mm diameter steel rollers, a strip of width 140 mm and thickness 8 mm undergoes 10% reduction of thickness. The angle of bite, in radians, is

(1) 0.006

(2) 0.031

(3) 0.062

(4) 0.600

  1. A 010 mm diameter annealed steel wire is drawn through a die at a speed of 0-5 dsec to reduce the diameter by 20%. The yield stress of the material is 800 MPa. Neglecting friction and strain hardening, the ideal stress required for drawing (in MPa) is

(1) 357.0

(2) 178.5

(3) 1287.5

(4) 2575.0

  1. A 025 mm hole is punched in a t = 2-5 mm thick steel sheet having shear strength z = 350 MPa. If the diametral clearance is given by the expression c = 0.0064 t&, the die bore diameter (in mm), punch diameter (in mm) and punch force (in kN) respectively are

(1) 25., 25.3, 171.8

(2) 25.0, 24.7, 68.72

(3) 24.7, 25.0, 171.8

(4) 25.3, 25.0, 68.72

  1. In a multi-pass wire drawing operation, a round bar of 010 mm diameter and 100 mm length is reduced in cross-section by drawing successively through a series of seven dies of decreasing exit diameter. During each of these drawing operations, the reduction in cross-sectional area is 35%. The yield strength of the material is

200  MPa. Ignore strain hardening.

The total true strain applied and the final length (in mm), respectively, are

(1) 2.45and817

(2) 2-45 and 345

(3) 3.02 and 2040

(4) 3.02 and 3330

  1. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes a volumetric solidification shrinkage and volumetric solid contraction of 4% and 6% respectively. No riser is used. Assume uniform cooling in all directions. The side of the cube aRer solidification and contraction is

(1) 49.96 mm

(2) 49.94 mm

(3) 48-94 mm

(4) 48-32 mm

  1. A cast steel slab of dimension 30 x 20 x 5 cm is poured horizontally using a side riser. The riser is cylindrical in shape with diameter and height, both equal to D. The freezing ratio of the mould, used in designing riser using Caine’s method is approximately equal to

(1) 8D/75

(2) 4D/75

(3) 75/8D

(4) 75/4D

  1. In a sand casting process, a sprue of 10 mm base diameter and 250 mm height leads to a runner which fills a cubicle mould cavity of 100 mm size. The volume flow 3 rate (in mm3/s) is

(1) 0.8 x 105

(2) 1.1 x 105

(3) 1.7 x 105

(4) 2.3 x 105

  1. The correct sequence of the processes involved in powder metallurgy is

(1) Blending, Compacting, Sintering and Sizing

(2) Blending, Compacting, Sizing and Sintering

(3) Compacting, Sizing, Blending and Sintering

(4) Compacting, Blend.ing, Sizing and Sintering

  1. Atomized iron powder having an apparent density of 2350 kglm has a compression ratio of 3 at compact pressure of 600 MPa. To compact 1000 bushes of 020 mm outer diameter, 010 mm inside diameter and 14 mm long, the mass of the powder required is

(1) 32.3 kg

(2) 23.3 kg

(3) 20.6 kg

(4) 16.6 kg

  1. When 0.83% carbon eutectoid steel is slowly cooled from 750°C to room temperature,

(1) Austenite transforms to martensite

(2) Austenite transforms to pearlite

(3) Austenite transforms to cementite

(4) Pearlite transforms to ferrite

  1. The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius to inner radius

(1) decreases

(2) increases

(3) remains constant

(4) None of the above

  1. The reheating of steam in a steam turbine

(1) increases the work done through the turbine

(2) reduces erosion of the turbine blades

(3) increases the thermal efficiency of turbine

(4) All of the above

  1. In an irreversible process there is

(1) loss of heat

(2) no loss of work

(3) gain of heat

(4) no gain of heat

  1. A pipe is replaced by two parallel pipes, each with half the cross-section of the original pipe. The discharge will

(1) remain the same

(2) increase by more than 10%

(3) decrease by more than 10%

(4) change by less than 5%

  1. The Darcy – Weisbach equation is commonly used for finding

(1) Loss of head due to friction in pipes

(2) Loss of head due to turbulence

(3) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement

(4) Loss of head due to bend in the pipe

  1. An Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat input, because in Otto cycle

(1) Maximum temperature is higher

(2) Heat rejection is lower

(3) Combustion is at constant volume

(4) Expansion and compression are isentropic

  1. In design of clutches, it is more logical and safer to use

(1) Uniform wear theory

(2) Uniform pressure theory

(3) Contact stress theory

(4) None of the above

  1. In the formulation of Lewis equation for toothed gearing, it is assumed that tangential load acts on the

(1) root of the tooth

(2) pitch point

(3) tip of the tooth

(4) None of the above

  1. For a given lift of the follower of a cam follower mechanism, a smaller base circle diameter is desired

(1) because it will give a steeper cam and higher pressure angle

(2) because it will give a profile with lower pressure angle

(3) because it will avoid jumping

(4) None of the above

  1. The Von Mises theory is used for

(1) brittle materials

(2) ductile materials

(3) plastic materials

(4) elastic materials

  1. The shaft and thrust bearing of a vertical shaft in a turbine is an example of

(1) Complete constraint

(2) Incomplete constraint

(3) Successful constraint

(4) Unreliable constraint

  1. The governor which is hunting is

(1) more sensitive

(2) less sensitive

(3) more stable

(4) None of the above

  1. A continuous beam is one which is

(1) fixed at both ends

(2) fixed at one end and free at the other end

(3) supported on more than two supports

(4) extending beyond the supports

  1. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called

(1) Modulus of elasticity

(2) Modulus of rigidity

(3) Bulk modulus

(4) Poisson’s ratio

  1. If a shaft of diameter ‘d’ and length ‘I’ has been loaded axially, then the ratio of change in diameter to the original is called as

(1) Longitudinal strain

(2) Shear strain

(3) Volumetric strain

(4) Lateral strain

  1. Coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which

(1) meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane.

(2) do not meet at one point and their lines of action also do not lie on the same plane.

(3) meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane.

(4) do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane.

  1. An increase in load at the free end of a cantilever is likely to cause failure

(1) at the free end

(2) at the mid of its length

(3) at the fixed support end

(4) anywhere on the beam

  1. Which of the following properties is not desirable for bearing alloy ?

(1) Good wearing quality

(2) Low coefficient of friction

(3) Low thermal conductivity

(4) High melting point

  1. The method to increase the yield strength of a crystalline material is

(1) Annealing

(2) Grain refinement

(3) Normalizing

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the following statements is not true in connection with silver ?

(1) It has highest thermal and electrical conductivity.

(2) It is a highly ductile and malleable metal.

(3) It oxidises slowly in air.

(4) It cannot be alloyed with other metals.

  1. Most widely used conducting materials are

(1) Gold and Silver

(2) Copper and Aluminium

(3) Tungsten and Platinum

(4) Germanium and Silicon

  1. The property of a metal by virtue of which it can withstand external force without rupture is

(1) Stiffness

(2) Strength

(3) Toughness

(4) Hardness

  1. The force which holds neutrons and protons together in a nucleus is

(1) Electrostatic force

(2) Gravitational force

(3) Magnetic force

(4) Nuclear force

  1. In single phase alloys, the commonly used mechanism for strengthening idare by

(1) Grain size reduction

(2) Solid-solution alloying

(3) Strain hardening

(4) All of the above

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