MPSC Police Sub Inspector Limited Departmental Main Examination 2017 Question Paper

 MPSC Police Sub Inspector Limited Departmental Main Examination 2017 Question Paper

1. Writ of Mandamus can be issued to a Police Officer in which of the following circumstance?

(1) If he failed to discharge humanitarian obligation

(2) If he failed to discharge statutory duties

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

2. Clause (5) of Art. 338 lays down the following duties of National Coin mission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes:

(a) to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for SC/ ST.

(b) to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of SC/ST.

(c) to participate and advise on planning process of socio-economic development.

(d) to present to the Prime Minister action taken reports each year or as per convenience of the commission, upon the working of those safeguards.

Answer options:

(1) Option (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) Option (a), (c) and (d) are correct ,

(3) Option (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct

3. A person shall be a citizen of India, if he fulfils the foIIowing conditions:

(a) He must have horn in the territory of India.

(b) Either of his parents was born in the territory of India

(c) He must have been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years.

(d) He must be appropriate for verification

Answer options:

(1) Option (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) Option (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) All of the above are correct

4. Read the following statements:

Statement I: Article 217 of the Indian Constitution deals with appointment and conditions of the Office of Judges of High Court.

Statement II: A person shall not be qualified for appointment of Judge of High Court unless, he/she is a citizen of India and has at least 05 years held a Judicial Office in the territory of India.

(I) Statement I is correct II false

(2) Statement I is false II correct

(3) Statement I and II false

(4) Statement I and II hue

5. The Constitution confers the following jurisdiction on the Supreme Court:

(a) As a Court of Record

(b) Writ Jurisdiction

(c) Original Jurisdiction

(d) Federal Court’s Jurisdiction

Answer options:

(1) All options are correct

(2) Only option (a) and (b) are correct

(3) Only option (c) and (d) are correct

(4) Only option (d) is correct

6. Art. 78 lays down the following duties of the Prime Minister towards the President:

(a) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposal for legislation.

(b) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.

(c) To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

(d) To give advice to the Govt. of India on legal matters.

Answer options :

(1) Option (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(2) Option (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) All options are correct

7. The Fundamental Rights, which are secured by Constitution of India are grouped under the following heads :

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Property

(c) Right against Exploitation

(d) Right against Freedom

Answer options:

(1) Option (a) and (d) are correct

(2) Option (b) and (c) are correct

(3) Option (c) and (d) are correct

(4) Option (a) and (c) are correct

8. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides procedure for amendment ?

(1) Article 30

(2) Article 386

(3) Article 256

(4) Article 368

9. The Parliament may form a new state by which of the following modes ?

(a) by separation of territory from any state

(b) by uniting two or more states

(c) by uniting parts of states

(d) by uniting any territory to a part of any state

Answer options :

(I) Option (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) Option (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) All options are correct

(4) None of the above

10. ‘Denial of equal pay for equal work, becomes irrational classification within Article 14’ laid down in the following case. Under Indian Constitution.

(1) Ranjit Thakur V/S Union of India

(2) Tejkiran Jain V/S M. Sanjiva Reddy

(3) Grih Kalyan Kendra Workers Union V/S Union of India

(4) A.K. Roy Union V/S Union of India

11. Which Article in the Indian Constitution grant us ‘Rights against exploitation’ ?

(1) Article 23 – 24

(2) Article 14 – 18

(3) Article 32 – 38

(4) Article 368

12. The state shall, in particular, directs its policy towards securing :

(a) That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.

(b) That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed at hest to sub serve the common good.

(c) That the operation of the economic system does not result in concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

(d) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Answer options :

(1) All of the above are correct

(2) Only option (a) and (c) are correct

(3) Only option (b) and (d) are correct

(4) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct

13. What is the main object of writ of “Habeas Corpus, ad subjiciendum” ?

(1) To secure release of criminal.

(2) To secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally.

(3) To secure good administration of jail.

(4) All the above.

14. Article 20 provides protection against :

(a) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.

(b) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

(c) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

(d) Any offence related with defamation.

Answer options :

(1) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) Option (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) All of the above are correct

(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct

15. Which Constitutional Amendment added the Part of ‘Fundamental Duties’ in the Indian Constitution ?

(1) 24th Constitutional Amendment

(2) 62nd Constitutional Amendment

(3) 78th Constitutional Amendment

(4) 4Znd Constitutional Amendment

16. Whoever makes any preparation for committing dacoity, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to______ and shall also be liable to fine.

(1) five years

(2) seven years

(3) ten years

(4) three years

17. Attempt to commit robbery is punishable under_____ of Indian Penal Code.

(1) Section 390

(2) Section 391

(3) Section 392

(4) Section 393

18. Electronic Record means______.

(1) Data

(2) Record

(3) Image or sound stored

(4) All of the above

19. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘B’ by thrusting his hand into ‘B’s pocket. ‘A’ fails in the attempt in consequence of ‘B’s having nothing in his pocket. ‘A’ is guilty under Section______.

(1) Section 378

(2) Section 383

(3) Section 390

(4) Section 511

20. Under the Indian Penal Code 1860 ‘Abetment’ is constituted under which of the following circumstances ?

(1) By instigating a person to commit an offence

(2) By engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence

(3) By intentionally, aiding a person to commit an offence

(4) All of the above

21. Section 39 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 define the term_____.

(1) Dishonesty

(2) Fraudulently

(3) Voluntarily

(4) Offence

22. As per section_______ of Indian Penal Code an offence committed by a child under seven years of age is not crime.

(1) 81

(2) 82

(3) 83

(4) 84

23. ‘A’ commits house tresspass by entering ‘B’s house through a window. This is______.

(1) Mischief

(2) House Breaking

(3) Extortion

(4) None of the above

24. The word ‘Moveable Property’ is defined in_____ of IPC.

(1) Section 21

(2) Section 22

(3) Section 23

(4) None of the above

25. Where the truck of the accused, driven rashly and negligently hits a bullock – cart from behind killing the bullock and cart man, the accused could be convicted :

 (1) u/s 429

(2) u/s 279 and 304 A

(3) u/s 279

(4) u/s 304 A

26. What punishment is prescribed in Indian Penal Code 1860 for giving false evidence ?

(1) Only fine of 7 10,000

(2) Only imprisonment of five years

(3) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or fine

(4) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and fine

27. A knowing that R has murdered 2, assists B to hide the body with intention to protect B from punishment. A is liable to :

(1) Imprisonment of either description for 7 years and also fine

(2) Rigorous imprisonment of 5 years and aIso fine

(3) Imprisonment of either description for 2 years and shall also fine

(4) Imprisonment of either description tor 10 years or fine or both

28. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with dowry death ?

(1) Section 304-A

(2) Section 304-B

(3) Section 498

(4) Section 498-A

29. Section 294 of Indian Penal Code speaks about_______.

(1) Obscene acts and songs

(2) Sale of obscene objects to young person

(3) Sale of obscene Rooks

(4) None of the above

30. A man who assaults or uses criminal force to any woman or abets such act with the intention of disrobing or compelling her to be naked, shall be punished under IPC with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be_______.

(1) Less than 5 years which may extend to 8 years

(2) Less than 4 years and also liable to fine.

(3) Less than 3 years but which may be extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

(4) Imprisonment more than 5 years or fine or both.

31. Injuring or defiling place of worship with intent to insult the religion of any class, for this offence punishment is prescribed in section_______ of Indian Penal Code.

(1) 294

(2) 298

(3) 293

(4) 295

32. According to Section 300 Exception 5 of I.P.C., culpable homicide is not murder when the person whose death is caused, being above the age of_______ years, suffers death or takes the risk of death with his own consent.

(1) 7 years

(2) 12years

(3) 16 years

(4) 18 years

33. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above_____ years of age and under______ who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to Judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.

(1) 6, 14

(2) 7, 12

(3) 8, 12

(4) 8, 14

34. Public Servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury to any person shall be punished with_____.

(1) Imprisonment of either description up to 3 years and fine

(2) Imprisonment of either description up to 3 years or fine or both

(3) Imprisonment of either description up to 5 years and fine

(4) Imprisonment up to 7 years

35. Under which section of Indian Penal Code ‘Injury’ is defined ?

(1) Section 44

(2) Section 41

(3) Section 40

(4) Section 42

36. An order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to promulgate such order, directing that a religious procession shall not pass down a certain street. ‘A’ knowingly disobeys the order, and thereby causes danger of riot. ‘A’ has committed the offence defined in section______ of I.P.C.

(1) 188

(2) 186

(3) 187

(4) 179

37. Section 293 provides for enhanced sentence where the obscene objects are sold, hired, distributed, exhibited or circulated to any person under the age of :

(1) 16 years

(2) 18 years

(3) 20 years

(4) 21 years

38. Making or selling instrument for counterfeiting coin covered under______ of I.P.C.

(1) Section 231

(2) Section 224

(3) Section 233

(4) Section 211

39. A’, by falsely pretending to be in civil services, intentionally deceives ‘B’, and thus dishonestly induces ‘B’ to let him have an credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. It________.

(1) Cheating

(2) Mischief

(3) Cheating by personation

(4) Extortion

40. Which chapter of Indian Penal Code deals with offences relating to religion ?

(1) Chapter XIV

(2) Chapter XV

(3) Chapter XVI

(4) Chapter XVII

41. What is the punishment for an offence Under Section 366-A of Indian Penal Code 1860 ?

(1) Life imprisonment

(2) Imprisonment which may extend to five years and shall also liable to fine

(3) Imprisonment which may extend to ten years and shall also liable to fine

(4) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years and shall also liable to fine

42. Information Technology Act has came into force on________.

(1) 17^th October, 2000

(2) 17^th  October, 2009

(3) 17^th  October, 2002

(4) 18^th October, 2009

43. ‘Unlawful Assembly’ has been defined in Indian PenaI Code, 1860 under______

(1) Section 141

(2) Section 146

(3) Section 149

(4) Section 159

44. Section 52 of Indian Penal Code 1860 is reIated to which of the following term ?

(1) Act done by Insane Person

(2) Act done by accident

(3) Act done in good faith

(4) Act done by misunderstanding

45. In which provision of Criminal Procedure Code, types (Classes) of Criminal Courts are mentioned ?

(1) Section 3

(2) Section 4

(3) Section 5

(4) Section 6

46. As per section_______ of Criminal Procedure Code the police can record a statement of any person by audio-video electronic means.

(1) 160

(2) 161

(3) 162

(4) 163

47. A warrant of arrest may be executed at :

(1) His residence

(2) His native place

(3) Any place in India

(4) His work place

48. Under which of the following section of Cr.P.C., a Police Officer have authority to inspects weights and measures ?

(1) Section 149

(2) Section 153

(3) Section 152

(4) Section 154

49. Under which of the following provision of Criminal Procedure Code a victim compensation scheme can be prepared ?

(1) Section 197

(2) Section 357 A

(3) Section 357 B

(4) Section 357 C

50. Format of summons given in__________ of Code of Criminal Procedure.

(1) Section 64

(2) Section 63

(3) Section 62

(4) Section 61

51. Section 196 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 is prosecution for offences against state and also :

(a) For criminal conspiracy to commit offences against State

(b) It prevent prosecution by private persons

(c) It dealt with offences relating to property

(d) It dealt with offences relating to human body

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

52. Who appoint Special Executive Magistrates ?

(1) Central Government

(2) State Government

(3) High Court

(4) District Court

53. Who appoints every Judge of a Court of Session ?

(1) Chief Minister

(2) Governor

(3) High Court

(4) Supreme Court

54.________ means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

(1) Summons case

(2) Warrant case

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) neither (1) nor (2)

55. According to Cr.P.C. sec.102_____ is empowered to seize property alleged or suspected to have been stolen property.

(1) any Police Officer

(2) Magistrate

(3) Executive Magistrate

(4) any person

56. To secure presence in court, the summons would be issued as per_____ section of Criminal Procedure Code.

(1) 61 to 69

(2) 71 to 79

(3) 81 to 89

(4) 91 to 99

57. As per Criminal Procedure Code the police making investigation in relation to rape of a child may be completed within_____ from the reporting of crime in the police station.

(1) six months

(2) three months

(3) one year

(4) two years

58. A case relating to an offence and not being a warrant case means_______

(1) Complaint

(2) Petition

(3) Summons Case

(4) None of the above

59. It is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the ground of arrest and rights of bail if the offence is not non-bailable under :

(I) Section 52 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 50 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 51 of Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 54 of Cr.P.C.

60. As per explanation to Sec. 2 (d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, a report made by the Police Officer in a case which Discloses, after investigation, the Commission of non-cognizable Offence shall be deemed to be a______

(1) Charge

(2) Complaint

(3) Inquiry

(4) None of the above

61. An officer in charge of police station has to send a case to a Magistrate when evidence is :

(1) sufficient

(2) Accurate

(3) Insufficient

(4) Is based on confession

62. When a court imposes a sentence of fine, the order of recovery to be applied :

(a) To the complainant

(b) to the person who has suffered loss or injury

(c) To the person who has remotely related with case

(d) To a person entitled to recover damages

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

63. Under Section______ of the code of criminal procedure the provision of power to compel restoration of abducted female is given.

(1) 96

(2) 99

(3) 100

(4) None of the above

64. On the basis of whose certificate the District Legal Services Authority can make the immediate first aid facility available to the victim under section 357A of Criminal Procedure Code ?

(1) Police Officer not below rank of officer in charge of police station

(2) A magistrate of a concerned area

(3) Either (1) or (2)

(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

65. In order to establish the offence in the case of defloration or violation of virgin after puberty, there must be following evidence as per Indian Evidence Act.

(1) That previous connection with other person could not have taken place.

(2) That the alleged intercourse took place at the time of alleged.

(3) That it was by force and against the will of women.

(4) All the above.

66. As per lndian Evidence Act, 1872

Statement I : The term ‘rape’ means carnal knowledge of woman by force and against her will.

Statement II : Carnal knowledge of child under the age of consent also constitutes a crime of rape, as a child of such tender years is considered incapable of giving a legal consent.

(1) Statement I is true hut I1 is false.

(2) Statement I is false but I1 is true.

(3) Statement both 1 and I1 are true.

(4) None of the above

67. among following to which the Indian Evidence Act is not applicable ?

(1) Court Martial

(2) All Judicial proceedings in or before any Court

(3) To proceedings before Arbitrator

(4) Other than Court Martial Convened under the Army Act

68. All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry, such statements are called_______

(1) Fact

(2) Facts in issue

(3) Oral Evidence

(4) None of the above

69. Which provision of Indian Evidence Act states that, confession caused by inducement, , threat or promise, is irrelevant in Criminal proceedings ?

(1) Section 24

(2) Section 25

(3) Section 26

(4) None of the above

70. Section 75 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with______

(1) Public document

(2) Private document

(3) Certified copies of public documents

(4) Proof of other official documents

71. As per provisions of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 testing the veracity of a witness means ascertaining his_______

(1) Honesty

(2) Modesty

(3) Morale

(4) Dignity and Respect

72. All facts, except the contents of documents or electronic records, may be proved by______.

(1) Admission

(3) Oral evidence

(2) Primary evidence

(4) Documentary evidence

73. Under Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, Secondary evidence means_____.

(1) Documents all are made by one uniform process like printing

(2) Document is executed in several parts then each part of the document

(3) Document itself

(4) Certified copies

74. Which rule/rules of relevancy have been discussed under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act ?

(1) Motive

(2) Preparation

(3) Previous or subsequent conduct

(4) All the above