MPSC Maharashtra Subordinate Service, Gr. B (Non-Gazetted)-Main Exam 2018- For Police Sub Inspector Question paper

MPSC Maharashtra Subordinate Service, Gr. B (Non-Gazetted)-Main Exam 2018- For Police Sub Inspector Question paper

1. Humans may crave absolute certainty; they may aspire to it; they may pretend, as partisans of certain groups do, to have attained it. But the history of science—by far the most successful claim to knowledge accessible to humans—teaches that the most we can hope for is successive improvement in our understanding, learning from our mistakes, an asymptotic approach to the Universe, but we proviso that absolute certainty will always elude.

Select the following that best expresses the main conclusion of the argument above.

(1) Science carries us towards an understanding of how the world is, rather than how we would wish it to be.

(2) We should not accept scientific understanding as a final truth at any stage as there is always scope for improvement.

(3) Due to lack of certainty science is not assisting us to take charge of our future and therefore we need to depend on godmen for assurance.

(4) We should accept the scientific facts without criticism if they come from scientists.

2. Sunspots are relatively cool dark areas developed on surface of the sun periodically. It is observed by scientists that high sunspot activity coincides with stormy period on the earth. Thus periods of strong and widespread stormy weather that earth suffers are caused by increased number of sunspots.

Select the best statement of the flaw in the above argument from the following:

(1) Argument ignores the influence of low sunspot activity on earth’s weather system.

(2) Argument disputes the fact that storms are resulted from low pressure systems in the earth’s atmosphere.

(3) It overlooks the fact that there is always a storm somewhere on the earth.

(4) Since two events coincide argument assumes that one is the cause of the other.

3. A letter series is given. Find the rule in the series and identify the correct answer from the given alternatives.

Y, W, T, P, K, ?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) G

(4) D

4. S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are the streets parallel to each other. Street S is ½ km to the south of street T, street U is 1 km to the north of street V, street W is 1/2 km to the north of street X, street W is 1 km to the south of street Y, W is 1/2 km to the south of V and 1 km to the north of T. Select the pair of streets which is not 3/2 km apart.

(1) U,W

(2) V,T

(3) U,X

(4) X,Y

5. Among all members of a joint family 8 membersdon’t eat chiku, 9don’t eat papaya, 8don’t eat guava, 6don’t eat papaya and guava, 4don’t eat chiku and guava, 4 don’t eat papaya and chiku. 3 members don’t eat all 3 fruits mentioned. Select the option that indicates total, number of these family members.

(1) 25

(2) 14

(3) 17

(4) It is impossible to find expected number as information about fruits they eat is not given

6. The auto fair in certain place is based on metre reading and is described as follows. The metre reading is rounded up to next higher multiple of 4. For instance, if the metre reading is 37 paise, it is rounded up to 40 paise. The resultant is multiplied by 17. The final fair is calculated by rounding this number to nearest multiple of 25. Select the final fair in rupee if metre shows 55.

(1) 9.75

(2) 9.50

(3) 8.00

(4) 8.75

7. It was Thursday on 1^st of October 1981. What date was it 4 days prior to the fifth Sunday immediately after is’ of October?

(1) Oct. 28

(2) Oct. 29

(3) Oct. 27

(4) Nov. 1

8. Jamal is trying to arrange his eight horses in four rows of two to a chariot for movie shoot. Though he named them as persons but he also labelled them with letters. He knows his horses well and considering their habits he needs to observe following rules. A must always be on the right-hand side but not in the front row. B and C must be in either of the middle two rows, but not necessarily in the same row. E must always be immediately behind D. G must always be ahead of F but both should be never on the same side and never next to B or C. H must be as far away from A as possible and not on the same side. Select the possible pair/pairs from the given list, from right to left that can be there in the row immediately behind front row.

(a) E-D

(b) G-D

(c) A-E

(d) A-C

(e) E-A

Answer options:

(1) Only (a) and (d)

(2) All except (e)

(3) Only (a), (c) and (e)

(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)

9. Disha rode her bicycle 2 km to south of her home to meet her friend Melani at her home. From here both went 5 km west by separate bicycles to meet Maharookh at her home. From this point these three friends went 2 km north, 11 km to east, 2 km to south and finally 5 km to west by separate bicycles. From this point they started cycling at the same time and with same speed to return their own home using shortest route, who will be the last person to reach home?

(1) Disha

(2) Melani

(3) Maharookh

(4) Data is not sufficient

10. Study the following argument and then select one of the given options most closely parallels the reasoning used in it.

All fruits grow on trees. That plant bears fruits. Therefore that plant is a tree.

(1) All trees bear fruits. That plant bears fruits. Therefore that plant is a tree.

(2) All trees bear fruits. A cassia is a tree. Therefore cassia bears fruits.

(3) All cassias bear fruits. That tree bears fruits. Therefore that tree is a cassia.

(4) All plants bear fruits. That pod is a cassia fruit. Therefore all plants are cassias.

11. According to certain coding system, ‘bright fresh sunny day’ is coded as ‘mec rig koh muf’, ‘fragrance of fresh flowers’ is coded as ‘rig pok og hez’, ‘bright colours of baskets’ is coded as ‘net muf nuk pok’ and ‘basket filled with flowers’ is coded as ‘pit net og jec’. Select the group of words that cannot be coded completely using this information.

(1) Fragrance of fresh flowers

(2) Colours of bright flowers

(3) Basket of fresh flower

(4) Bright flowers filled baskets

12. Using given information chooses most logical answer.

Melinda and her brother are sharing their residential flat with some persons; there is a married couple, a pair of twin sisters and a pair of cousin brothers. Though one of the sisters is not a good bike rider, all ladies went for a day long bike ride. One of the gentlemen being doctor went to attend a patient in the morning who needed 24 hours care. All other gentlemen went for nature trail for a day.

Who is at home at 12 0′ clock noon?

(1) Only gentleman who is a doctor as he returned after completing his duty.

(2) A twin sister who is not good at riding a bike.

(3) None of the lady.

(4) Three gentlemen who went for nature trail and returned home early.

13. A dealer buy’s eggs at Rs. 36 per gross. He sells the eggs at a profit of 12.5% on the cost price. What is the nearest selling price per egg?

(1) 33 paise

(2) 30 paise

(3) 29 paise

(4) 28 paise

14. According to 2011 census ________ % of population is literate in Nandurbar district.

(1) 61.6

(2) 64.4

(3) 63.4

(4) 66.4

15. Where the largest deposits of coal are observed in Maharashtra?

(1) Kolhapur

(2) Solapur

(3) Navapur

(4) Ballarpur

16. Which of the following soil is rich in oxides of iron and aluminium?

(1) Black soil

(2) Laterite soil

(3) Marshy soil

(4) Desert soil

17. How many percentage of population in Maharashtra increased during the decade 2001-2011?

(1) 11.99

(2) 10.99

(3) 14.99

(4) 15.99

18. As per the 2011 census, what is the percentage of Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribe population of the total population in
    Maharashtra?

(1) 10.2 and 8.8

(2) 10.11 and 8.8

(3) 9.2 and 8.2

(4) 8.8 and 10.2

19. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) Mangrove forests are found in Thane district.

(b) Oil is produced from Rosha grass.

(c) Tiwar is an important tree in Gadchiroli forest.

Answer options:

(1) (a)

(2) (a), (b)

(3) (b), (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c)

20. As per the census 2011, which district has less population?

(1) Jalna

(2) Parbhani

(3) Amravati

(4) Latur

21. A Workers and Peasants Party was founded in Mumbai in 1927. Which of the following leaders was not involved in its establishment?

(1) S.S. Mirajkar

(2) K.N. Joglekar

(3) S.V. Ghate

(4) M.R. Jaykar

22. In 1930, in the Mehkar and Chikhli Taluquas of Buldhana District, the farmers who were in debts began a campaign under the leadership of __________ on the lines of Satyashodhak Movement.

(1) Pandharinath Patil

(2) Keshavrao Jedhe

(3) Keshavrao Bagade

(4) Anandswami

23. The fist bill to make Primary education compulsory was moved in the Imperial Council in 1911 by _______.

(1) Pherozeshah Mehta

(2) K.T. Telang

(3) G.K. Gokhale

(4) Badruddin Tayyabji

24. Besides the Bhils, Kolis and Dhangars __________ joined Vasudeo Balwant Phadke.

(a) Sitaram Gadre

(b) Ramchandrapant Kulkarni

(c) Gopal Moreshwar Sathe

(d) Umaji Naik

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (d) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

25. Who established the ‘Deccan Sabha?

(1) Lokmanya Tilak

(2) Jushce Ranade

(3) G.G. Agarkar

(4) G.K. Cokhale

26. Who had organized a training camp for the ladies who had worked as volunteers at the Faizpur session of the Congress?

(1) Usha Dange

(2) Prema Kantak

(3) Rosa Deshpande

(4) Usha Mehta

27. Tilak was arrested on 27th July 1879. Which of the following charges were levied on him?

(a) The publication in the Kesari of 15fh June of a poem titled “Shivaji’s Utterances”, read out by a young man at the Shivaji festival. (b) The speech Tilak had given at the Shivaji festival in defence of Shivaji’s killing of Afzal Khan.

(c) He started celebration of Ganapati and Shivaji festivals.

(d) He started ‘Maratha’, a newspaper in English.

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

28. The second session of the All India Kisan Congress was presided over by _________.

(1) N.G. Ranga

(2) Shankar Deo

(3) Narendra Dev

(4) S.A. Dange

29. Which is not the salient feature of State Cabinet System?

(1) Leadership of Chief Minister

(2) Secrecy

(3) Collective Responsibility

(4) Leadership of Legislative Assembly

30. Identify incorrect statement.

(a) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall not exceed one third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that state.

(b) Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir has 108 members.

(c) Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir has 36 members.

Answer options:

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) None of these

31. Consider the following statements regarding other functions performed by the Constituent Assembly in addition to the making of the Constitution.

(a) Ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

(b) Adopted the National Flag on July 22, 1947.

(c) Adopted the National Anthem on January 24, 1950.

(d) Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 26, 1950.

Answer options:

(1) Statements (b), (c) are correct.

(2) Statements (a), (b), (d) are correct.

(3) Statements (b), (c), (d) are correct.

(4) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.

32. Which one of the following is not a essential qualification for the appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India?

(1) He should have been a judge of a High Court for five years.

(2) He should have been an advocate of a High Court for ten years.

(3) He should have completed the age of 35 years.

(4) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

33. Consider the following statements:

(a) The strength of Maharashtra Vidhan Sabha is 288.

(a) Sayaji Silam was the First Speaker of Maharashtra Legislative Assembly (1960).

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) None of these

34. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

(a) They are enforceable in the court of law.

(b) These rights are absolute.

(c) They can be suspended during national emergency except some.

(d) They are available only to Indian citizens.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (c) (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a), (c)

(4) (a), (d)

35. Which one of the following statements with regard to secularism is not correct?

(1) The secularism is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

(2) India is a Secular state i.e. a State which observes an attitude of neutrality and impartiality towards all religions.

(3) Secularism, m India, does not mean that the State should be hostile to religion but that it should be neutral as between the different religions.

(4) An appeal to the electorate on grounds of religion offends secular democracy.

36. According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, India is a ‘Republic’. What is the meaning of Republic?

(a) There is no hereditary ruler in the country.

(b) The head of the country is always elected directly or indirectly by the people for a fixed period.

Answer options:

(1) Statement (a) is correct.

(2) Statement (b) is correct.

(3) Both the statements are false.

(4) Both the statements are correct.

37. Under ________ of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the Protection Officer shall have to discharge various duties.

(1) Section 8

(2) Section 9(1)

(3) Section 10(1)

(4) Section 1O (2)

38. The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission is appointed by President on recommendations of the committee consisting of the ______ as its Chairperson.

(1) Home Minister

(2) Leader of Opposition

(3) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(4) Prime Minister

39. For the purpose of providing speedy trial of offences arising out of violation of human rights, the State Government may with advice of Chief Justice of each High Court specify for each district a ________ to be a Human Rights Court, as per the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

(1) Chief Judicial Magistrate’s Court

(2) District Court

(3) Civil Court

(4) Court of Session

40. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 consists of _______ chapters and ______ sections.

(1) 6, 25

(2) IV, 26

(3) VI, 24

(4) V, 23

41. Mahatma Gandhi Dispute Free Village Mechanism began from _______.

(1) 30^th September 2006

(2) 15^th August 2007

(3) 2^nd October 2007

(4) 30^th September 2007

42. Right against exploitation is given under following Articles of Constitution of India:

(1) 20 and 21

(2) 23 and 24

(3) 22 and 25

(4) 25 and 26

43. According to Section 15 of S.C. and S.T. (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 for every special court, State Government shall, by notification in the official Gazette, specify a public prosecutor or appoint an advocate who has been in practice as an advocate for not less than _________ , as a Special Public Prosecutor for the purpose of conducting cases in that court.

(1) Seven years

(2) Five years

(3) Ten years

(4) Eight years

44. As per Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 whoever forces or causes a member of Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe to leave his house, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ______ months and may extend to _________ years and with fine.

(1) 1 month; 1 year

(2) 2 months; 2 years

(3) 6 months; 5 years

(4) 3 months; 7 years

45. According to Section 16-A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. The provisions of the probation of offenders Act, 1958 (20 of 1958) shall not apply to any person above the age of _______ who is found guilty of having committed any offence punishable under this Act.

(1) 12 years

(2) 14 years

(3) 16 years

(4) 10 years

46. Article _______ of Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentioned about Right to Social Security which covered under Article ________ of Indian Constitution also.

(1) 8, 29

(2) 22, 29(1)

(3) 18, 24

(4) 17, 19(1) (a)

47. A person being a public servant but not being a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe why neglects his duties to be performed under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled. – Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) AC< 1989 shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than ________ but which may extend to _______.

(1) One month; six months

(2) Six months; four years

(3) One year; two years

(4) Six months; one year

48. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, Punishment for taking or giving dowry is:

(1) Not less than two years

(2) Not less than three years

(3) Not less than four years

(4) Not less than five years

49. Section _____ of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 refers punishment for refusing to sell goods and render services.

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

50. As per the Rule – 8 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Rules, 2006, it is the duty of the Protection Officer to:

(a) Assist the aggrieved person in making complaint.

(b) To give her information on rights of aggrieved persons.

(c) To prepare a ‘safety plan’ including measures to prevent further domestic violence.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) Only (a) and (c) are correct

(3) Only (b) and (c) are correct

(4) All are correct

51. “Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes” shall have the meanings assigned to them respectively under clause (_______) and clause (_________) of Article 366 of the constitution.

(1) 21, 22

(2) 22, 23

(3) 23, 24

(4) 24, 25

52. As per Indian Evidence Act, Section 90 which of the following custody can be considered as proper custody?

(a) “A has been in possession of landed property for a long time. He produces from his custody deeds relating to the land showing his title to it.

(b) “A produces deeds relating to landed property of which he is the mortgage. The mortgagor is in possession.

(c) “A”, a connection of “B produces deeds relating to lands in “B” is possession, which were deposited with him by “B for safe custody.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and (b)

(3) Only ( c)

(4) All of the above

53. According to section 52(1) of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, it shall be lawful fcr the District Magistrate (with previous sanction of Revenue Commissioner) to award or apportion all or any money recovered as compensation amount under sub-sections (_________) to (________)of section 51 to any person, or among all or any persons whom he considers entitled to compensation in respect of the loss or damage or death or gravious hurt aforesaid.

(1) 3, 8

(2) 1, 9

(3) 2, 10

(4) 1, 8

54. According to section 80(1) of the Maharashtra Police Act 1951, any police officer specially empowered in this behalf by a competent authority may arrest without warrant for an offence specified in ________.

(1) Section 98

(2) Section 110

(3) Section 82

(4) Section 86

55. According to section 141 of Indian Penal Code 1860 how many people are required to form “unlawful assembly”?

(1) Two

(2) Seven or more

(3) Five or more

(4) None of the above

56. What is the period for which any Warrant of Arrest issued by a court under Section 70 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 shall remain in force?

(1) One year

(2) Six months

(3) Five years

(4) Until it is cancelled by the court which issued it or until it is executed

57. According to section 22, of Indian Penal Code 1860, which of the following property is not “movable” property?

(a) Electricity

(b) Stones and minerals severed from earth

(c) Money and Jewellery

(d) Farm land

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (d) only

58. Which section of Indian Penal Code defines criminal conspiracy?

(1) Section 120-8

(2) Section 120-A

(3) Section 120

(4) Section 119

59. Under the provisions of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, who can be appointed as the principal of police training college – Nasik by State Government?

(1) Any police officer

(2) Any person who had been the principal of any other college

(3) Any Police Officer not below the rank of Police Superintendent

(4) Inspector General of Police

60. Sections ______, ______, ______ and ______ of the Indian Evidence Act taken together clearly define “Admission”.

(1) 12, 13, 14, 15

(2) 13, 14, 15, 16

(3) 17, 18, 19, 20

(4) 21, 22, 23, 24

61. Which section of Code of Criminal Procedure state that where a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence and his identification by any other person or persons is considered necessary for the purpose of investigation of such offence, the court, having Jurisdiction, may on the request of the officer-in-charge of a police station, direct the person so arrested to subject himself to identification by any person or persons in such manner as the court may deem fit.

(1) Section 54

(2) Section 54-A

(3) Section 55-A

(4) Section 55

62. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ upon a bond for the payment of money; ‘B’ denies the making of the bond. The fact that, at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, ‘B’ required money for a particular purpose, is _______.

Choose the correct answer as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act.

(1) Disproved

(2) Not proved

(3) Relevant

(4) Irrelevant

63. According to section 12(2) of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, each such division shall be in charge of an ______ and each section shall be in charge of an Inspector of Police.

(1) Deputy Superintendent of Police

(2) Additional Commissioner

(3) Assistant Commissioner

(4) Assistant Police Inspector

64. As per the Indian Penal Code 1860, which of the following are ingredients of an Affray?

(a) Fighting

(b) Two or more persons engaged in fighting

(c) Fighting in public place

(d) Fighting disturbs the public peace

Answer options:

(1) (b) only

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d)

(4) All of the above

65. The presiding officers of courts of Judicial Magistrates mentioned under Section 11(2) of Code of Criminal Procedure shall be appointed by the ______.

(1) District Court

(2) State Government

(3) High Court

(4) Supreme Court

66. Under the provisions of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – TIP – test “Identification Pared” is conducted by:

(a) Executive Magistrate

(b) Police Inspector

(c) Jail Officers

Choose the correct option:

(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) None of the above

67. According to which section of the Maharashtra Police Act 1951, dance in eating house, permit room or beer bar is prohibited?

(1) Section 33

(2) Section 32

(3) Section 30

(4) Section 33-A

68. Under Section 94(2) of Criminal Procedure Code what is objectionable article?

(a) Counterfeit coin

(b) Forged document

(c) False seals

(d) Counterfeit currency notes

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) ( b) and (c)

(3) (b) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

69. According to Section 96 of Code of Criminal Procedure, any person having any interest in any newspaper, book or other document in respect of which a declaration of forfeiture has been made under section 95, may within _______ from the date of publication in official gazette of such declaration apply to the High Court to set aside such declaration.

(1) Two months

(2) One year

(3) Six months

(4) Three months

70. According to section 34 of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, the ______ and the _______ in areas under their respective charges may, whenever in his opinion such action is necessary, authorise such Police Officer as he thinks fit to erect barriers on any street for the purpose of stopping temporarily vehicles driven on such street.

(1) District Magistrate, Sub Divisional Officer

(2) Commissioner, District Police Superintendent

(3) Assistant Commissioner, Deputy Commissioner

(4) Police Inspector, Police Sub Inspector

71. Which section of the Indian Penal Code defines the word “person”?

(1) 10

(2) 8

(3) 11

(4) 12

72. According to Section 2(r) “police report” means a report forwarded by a police officer to a magistrate under sub-section (2) of ________.

(I) Section 176

(2) Section 173

(3) Section 174

(4) Section 175

73. Provisions regarding “unnatural offences” is under Section _______ of Indian PenaI Code 1860.

(1) 376-A

(2) 497

(3) 377

(4) None of the above.

74. Under the provisions of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 cognizable offence means _________.

(1) A police officer may arrest without warrant

(2) A police officer can arrest only with warrant

(3) Non-bailable offence

(4) None of the above

75. Section _____ of the Indian Penal Code defines the offence of “rioting” armed with deadly weapon.

(1) 145

(2) 149

(3) 148

(4) 146

76. According to the provisions of Indian Penal Code 1860, any Act done by a child below the age of _______ is not an offence under any circumstances.

(1) Five years

(2) Seven years

(3) Sixteen years

(4) Twelve years

77. Which sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with offences against property?

(1) 378 to 462

(2) 463 to 489 (E)

(3) 499 to 510

(4) 330 to 377

78. According to ______ of Indian Evidence Act, in criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of a good character, is relevant.

(1) Section 54

(2) Section 53

(3) Section 52

(4) Section 55

79. Which section of the Maharashtra Police Act 1951 deals with the duties of Police Officers towards the public?

(1) Section 66

(2) Section 64

(3) Section 65

(4) Section 67

80. As per Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

(A) Hearsay Evidence is that which a witness reports himself to have heard.

(B) Secondary Evidence is when an original document is produced before the court for inspection

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

(1) Statement (A) is true (B) is false.

(2) Statement (A) is false (B) is true.

(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are false.

81. On the basis of Criminal Procedure Code choose the correct statement.

(A) An assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by Law but not a sentence of death or imprisonment for life.

(B) Death sentence passed by a Sessions Judge requires confirmation by the High Court.

Answer options:

(1) Statement (A) is wrong (B) is right.

(2) Statement (A) is right (B) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.

82. “A, a police officer, being ordered by the court to arrest “Y”, and after due enquiry, believing “Z to be “Y”, arrests “Z. As per ________ of Indian Penal Code, “A” has of Indian Penal Code, “A” has

(1) Section 76

(2) Section 78

(3) Section 77

(4) Section 79

83. In relation to Indian Evidence Act, which is a correct statement?

(A) Documents Forming Acts passed by State Government are public documents.

(B) Registered will of a private person is a private document.

Answer options:

(1) Statement (A) is wrong (B) is correct.

(2) Statement (A) is correct (B) is wrong.

(3) Statements (A) and (B) both are wrong.

(4) Statements (A) and (B) both are correct.

84. Under the provisions of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, what is not included within the meaning and definition of the word “place” ?

(a) Tent

(b) Temporary Booth

(c) Temporary Construction

(d) An open area

Answer options:

(1) Only (c)

(2) (c) and (b)

(3) Only (a) and (b)

(4) All are included

85. There are _________ conditions mentioned in Section 438(2) of Criminal Procedure Code which may be included in the directions when the High Court or the Court of Session makes a directions under sub-section (1) of 438.

(1) Three

(2) Five

(3) Four

(4) Six

86. According to section 2(11) of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, “Police Officer” means any member of the police force appointed or deemed to be appointed under this Act, and includes a special or an additional police officer appointed under section ________ of _________.

(1) 19, 20

(2) 21, 22

(3) 23, 24

(4) 25, 26

87. According to which section of the Indian Evidence Act, the confession made by any person whilst he is in the custody of a police officer shall not be proved against him?

(1) Section 26

(2) Section 27

(3) Section 28

(4) Section 29

88. As per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act 1872, which of the following is “fact”?

(a) Certain objects are arranged in a certain order in a certain place

(b) A man heard or saw something

(c) A man said certain words

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (a) only

(4) All of the above

89.Under the provisions of Maharashtra Police Act 1951, whoever makes unauthorised use of police uniform is punishable with fine which may extend to __________.

(1) Rs. 5000

(2) Rs. 1000

(3) Rs. 10,000

(4) None of the above

90. Any order passed under Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 remain in force for not more than __________ months and if it is necessary then State Government may extend such period upto ________ months.

(1) 12, 24

(2) 2, 6

(3) 1, 3

(4) 3, 6