Home / Question Papers / MPSC Maharashtra Subordinate Service, Gr.B (Non-Gazetted)-Main Exam 2018- Assistant Section Officer – Paper 2

MPSC Maharashtra Subordinate Service, Gr.B (Non-Gazetted)-Main Exam 2018- Assistant Section Officer – Paper 2

MPSC Maharashtra Subordinate Service, Gr.B (Non-Gazetted)-Main Exam 2018- Assistant Section Officer – Paper 2

  1. Study examples and use rules following for selecting code for expression “I stand”: there are no exceptions to the rule and only those rules apply that may be derived from the provided expressions.

Examples : palo ko = I sit, palo tu = she sits; and karo tu = she stands

(1) tu ko

(2) ko karo

(3) karo ko

(4) karo palo

  1. Study the true statements and conclusions based on these and select the option that describes conclusions correctly :

Statements: Most architects are writers.

No writer is a driver.

All drivers are architects.

Conclusions: (I) Some writers are architects.

(II) All architects are drivers.

(III) No drivers is a writer.

Answer Options:

(1) Only (I) follow

(2) Only (II) and (III) follows

(3) Only (I)  and (III) follows

(4) None of these

  1. Study the reasoning process of the argument given blow and select from option that most closely resembles the reasoning used in it.

Anju cannot afford to go for watching a movie. Buying tickets for enjoying drama is even more expensive, thus she cannot afford that either.

(1) Since tea contains caffeine Anju cannot sleep at night if she drinks a cup of tea after 6.30 pm. Coffee also contains more caffeine if compared to tea so Anju would not drink that after 6.30 it either.

(2) Anju didn’t have enough patience to complete the story book that her father gave for her birthday. The novel that her mother gave to her also requires more patience would not finish it either.

(3) Anju does not like banana. This ice-cream contains banana and almonds, so Anju would not like it either.

(4) It is too far Anju to walk to the Garden. The beach is closer, so she will prefer to go there instead.

  1. Introducing Aadit to her husband, women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” The womwn is related to Aadit is :

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

  1. There are two price structures available to choose printing 500 copies of brochure as given below.

X : An equal cost for each brochure without considering number.

Y : An initial fixed cost followed by a lower cost than structure “X” for each brochure.

Select one of the following set of information that would be sufficient to decide least expensive price structure from the mentioned above.

(1) An example showing cost of 200 brochures by using both the cost structures.

(2) The cost per brochure using structure X and initial cost using structure Y.

(3) The cost of 1 brochure using structure X and 2 brochures using structure Y.

(4) The number of brochures for which total bill be same by both available structure X and Y.

  1. Same persons are travelling in a bus. 6 persons are Tamil speakers, 15 are Hindi speakers and 6 are Gujarati speakers. Some persons speak any other language mentioned here. If two persons speak two languages and one person speaks three languages then how many travelers are in a bus?

(1) 21

(2) 23

(3) 22

(4) 24

  1. If children are sitting in rows in a classroom, the teacher can have eye contact with all of them while she is explaining something to them. This is not always possible if they are sitting in groups around tables. Also, when they look up, instead of seeing the teacher they see the child opposite in a group and being tempted to talk. So, sitting in rows helps children to concentrate better on their work and should therefore be the standard arrangement in every school classroom.

Select the statement that would most weaken the above argument.

(1) Rows of desks take up no more classroom space than tables.

(2) Traditionalists argue that teaching the whole class in is best.

(3) Some children are easily distracted whether they sit rows or in groups.

(4) Sitting in groups of between four and seven for constructing knowledge is essential.

  1. Smt. Kavita wants her students to learn various skills from each other informally. Thus though she allows everyone to choose her or his partner for pair-share work, she makes sure that no pair will work together for more than four days in a row and Kala and Hamid worked for three days continuously. Kala and Adal worked together during last round work and therefore she does not want to pair them right now. Select the student that should work Rahi at present.

(1) With any other student not mentioned here

(2) Kala

(3) Hamid

(4) It is possible to select student from those mentioned here

  1. Select number of ways can three children can be selected to work on a project out of 15 children, if one particular child is always included and two particular children are always excluded.

(1) 105

(2) 91

(3) 76

(4) 66

  1. To keep their messages secret Jitu and Alex formulated a coding system that is based on following operations :

(a) Replace each latter from A to M by its umber wise equivalent with the alphabets reversed from Z to N; so A becomes Z, B becomes Y and continued and alphabets from N to Z are replaced by alphabets from A to M; so N becomes A, O becomes B and continue.

(b) Replace each letter resulting from operation (a) by a two digit number according to its place in all alphabets arranged in reversed order; so A becomes 26, B becomes 25, X becomes 03 and so on.

Select the coded form of the word LUKEWARM according to this system.

Answer options:

(1) 1221110523151813

(2) 1219110517012213

(3) 1221110517012213

(4) 1219110517012613

  1. A, C, E, G and I are five villages that are connected with each other by various modes of transport. Study the information and select the false statement with respect to it:

A and C are connected by boat and rail; E and G are connected by bus and boat; C and I are connected by boat and rail; E and G connected by bus and boat; C and I are connected by boat and E and I are connected by bus and rail.

(1) One can go from C to G without changing transport mode.

(2) Villagers from A can’t escape visiting E if he or she wants to go to I.

(3) E is directly connected to 3 villages.

(4) It is possible to go to I from G without changing transport mode.

  1. Even when demographic characteristics do not show anti-female bias or any at all, there are other ways in which women get less than a square deal. Afghanistan may be the only country in the world where the government is keen on actively excluding girls from schooling; but there are many countries in Asia and Africa and also in Latin America, where girls have far less opportunity for schooling than do boys. And there are other deficiencies in basic facilities available to women, varying form encouragement to cultivate one’s natural talents to fair participation in social functions of the community.

(1) 2nd statement explains of how women are deprived as mentioned in 1st statement.

(2) Both the statements describe that women in Afghanistan face worst bias as they are deprived of schooling by the government.

(3) Both the underlined statements describe how women are deprived by some societies.

(4) Both the underlined statement describes how women are not allowed to develop their natural talents.

  1. Seven different coloured chairs placed before me. Yellow coloured chair is between blue and violet chairs. Green coloured chair is between chair is between red and orange chairs. White chair is next to blue chair it is not next to red or violet chairs. Assuming given information to true select option that most appropriately describes conclusion/s from given below.

(a) Blue chair will be always next to white chair

(b) It is possible that orange chair will be next to white chair

(c) It is possible that either or orange chair will be next to violet chair

Answer options:

(1) None but (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) If (b) is possible than (c) is not possible

(4) All conclusions are correct.

  1. Winter days to be cloudier than summer days. Rainy day be cloudier than winter days. If these two sentences are then the sentence, “summer days tend to be cloudier than rainy days” is __________.

(1) Always true

(2) Always false

(3) Either true or false

(4) Cannot be decided

  1. Given are five statements followed by options comprised of three statements in a specific order. Choose option the option where third statement is valid conclusion based on the preceding two statements:

Statements:

(a) Personal fulfillment depends on various opportunities; facilities and freedom that everyone gets to develop and express his or her capabilities.

(b) Quality educational opportunities and health facilities assist persons to develop his or her potential optimally.

(c) Higher national per capita income indicates that every person gets quality educational and health facilities.

(d) It is fact that higher national per capita income does not indicate that people get quality educational and health favility.

(e) Personal fulfillment is possible when he or she has freedom to choose from various alternatives to express capabilities.

Answer options:

(1) (c), (b), (a)

(2) (c), (b), (e)

(3) (a), (b), (e)

(4) (b), (e), (a)

  1. Match the following districts with their respective religious places.

        District                 Religious places

(a) Ahmednagar   (i) Ter, Yedashi, Andur, Paranda

(b) Aurangabad    (ii) Mahur, Kandhar, Hadgaon, Mukhed

(c) Osmanabad    (iii) Paithan, Apegaon, Maismal, Khuldabad

(d) Nanded           (iv) Shingnapur, Madhi, Toke, Bodhegaon.

Answer options:

      (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1)  (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv)  (iii)   (i)  (ii)

(3) (ii)   (iii)  (iv)  (i)

(4) (iii)  (iv)  (i)    (ii)

  1. Yerala is a tributary of ________ river.

(1) Krishna

(2) Bhima

(3) Godavari

(4) Tapi

  1. Which of the following sequences of Ghats in Maharashtra from South to North is correct?

(1) Bor, Kumbharli, Amba, Fonda

(2) Fonda, Amba, Kumharli, Bor

(3) Kumbharli, Fonda, Bor, Amba

(4) Amba, Bor, Fonda, Kumbharli.

  1. Select the correct order of rivers of Maharashtra from north to south along 740 East longitude.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (c), (d), (b)

  1. Observe the following statements:

(a) Nitrogen and Oxygen are the constant gases in atmosphere.

(b) The % air borne dust particles in the atmosphere is 9.9.

(c) The gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere is found by Rutherford in 1772.

Answer options:

(1) Only statement (a) is correct

(2) Only statement (b) is correct.

(3) Statements (a) and (b) are correct.

(4) Statements (a) and (c) are correct.

  1. The Geographical area of Maharashtra state is ________ and it extended between _______ and _______ East longitude.

(1) 306613 and 720 16’ to 7954’

(2) 305613 and 710 16’ to 790 16’

(3) 307713 and 720 36’ to 800 54’

(4) 307613 and 720 26’ to 800 44’

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Since 1933 the cotton textile industries began to decentralize in the state of Maharashtra.

(b) International Infotech Park (IIP) is located at Navi Mumbai.

Answer Options:

(1) Only (a) statement is correct.

(2) Only (b) statement is correct.

(3) Statements (a) and (b) are correct.

(4) Statements (a) and (b) are not correct.

  1. Which of the following pair does not match correctly?

(1) KeshavSut —  Nava Shipai

(2) Lokhivadi – Shatpatre

(3) Babasaheb Ambedkar – Prabudha Bharat

(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak – Murtibhanjan

  1. Which newspaper is described in the sentences given below:

(a) It was started in 1908.

(b) Tilak was associated with the efforts made to start it.

(c) It was owned by a limited company.

(d) Waman Gopal Joshi, Gopal, Anany Ogale and Dattatraya Balvant kalelkar are its staff

(e) But this paper did not live for more than a year

Answer options:  

(1) Mumbai Vaibhav

(2) Gurakhi

(3) Rashtramat

(4) Deshsevak

  1. Vinoba Bhave wrote ______ during his imprison,ent in 1930-31

(1) Gita Rahasya

(2) Gitai

(3) Gitasar

(4) Gitabodh

  1. Indentify the Person.

(a) He was participated in International conferences on oriental studies held in London in 1874.

(b) He was Vice-chancellor of University of Bombay.

Answer option:

(1) Dr. Pamakrishna Bhandarkar

(2) Dr. Kashinath Telang

(3) Pherozeshah Mehta

(4) Vaman Modak

  1. As per the Press Act of 1910, security of Rs. 5000 was demanded from the Anglo-Marathi paper ___________ in Bombay and as a result it discontinued publication.

(1) Kal

(2) Deshsevak

(3) Rashtramat

(4) None of the above

  1. Arrange the following in correct chronological order:

(a) Lucknow Pact

(b) Homerule Leasue

(c) Surat Congress

(d) Congress Democretic Party

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(3) (c), (b), (a), (d)

(4) (c), (d), (b), (a)

  1. Near Poona-Mumbai Road Mangirbaba Mandir is mausoleum of ____________.

(1) Raghoji Salve

(2) Lahuji Salve

(3) Umaji Naik

(4) dadaji Naik

  1. In which of the following books Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar has critically examined Hinduism?

(a) Philosophy of Hinduism

(b) Riddles in Hinduism

(c) Religion in India

(d) Buddha and his Dhamma

Answer options:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b) and (d) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (d) only

  1. Who was the First Secretary of “The Bombay Association”?

(1) Bhau Daji Lad

(2) Fardunji Naoroji

(3) Vinayakrao Jagannath

(4) Bomanji Hormusji

  1. Find out the incorrect statement/s about Legislative council of Maharashtra.

(a) As per 1935 Act two legislative houses were created in Maharashtra i.e., then Bombay province.

(b) First of its session was held in Pune in Council Half in 1935.

(c) Its membership at its creation was 29 later rose to 40 in 1957 and at present it is 78.

Answer option:

(1) (a) Only

(2) (b) Only

(3) (c) Only

(4) (b), (c) Only

  1. If the act passed y parliament proved that it is against the principle of constitution, it is termed as:

(1) Ultravires

(2) Intravires

(3) Illegitimate

(4) Legitimate

  1. What can the President do if a state fails to comply with directives of the Central Government?

(1) He can dissolve state legislature and order fresh elections.

(2) He can declare the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state and assume responsibility for the government of the state.

(3) He can send paramilitary forces to the state to secure compliance.

(4) Any of the above.

  1. Sindhi language was included in the eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution in __________.

(1) 1976

(2) 1967

(3) 1992

(4) 2004

  1. Consider the statements about strength of Constituent Assembly after partition of India.

(a) Total strength of Assembly came down to 299.

(b) The strength of the representatives of princely state was reduced to 70.

(c) Strength of the representatives of provinces and Chief Commissioners Provinces was reduced to 299.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct about ‘Fundamental Duties’?

(1) These are included In the constitution by the 42nd constitutional Amendment.

(2) These are included in Part ‘IV A’ of the constitution, which is a new.

(3) These are included in Article 51-A.

(4) These are applicable to Indian citizens as well as to non-citizens.

  1. The Government of India Act, 1935 as amended upto 15th August, 1943 had________.

(1) 15, 325, 12

(2) 14, 321, 10

(3) 16, 320, 8

(4) 17, 324, 9

  1. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) There is no bar to the appointment of a person from outside the state legislature as minister

(b) A person appointed as a minister has to become a member of either house of state legislature within a six months.

(c) A person appointed as a speaker of Legislative Assembly has to become a member within six months.

(d) Nominated member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as minister.

Answer option:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (b) only

(4) (a) and (b)

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the speaker of Maharashtra Legislative Assembly:

(a) He has to vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House.

(b) His conduct in regulating procedure or maintaining order in the house can be challenged only in the High Court.

(c) He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee.

(d) He presides over a joint sitting of both the Houses of state Legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c)

(4) (b), (d)

  1. Which one of the following ‘veto power’ cannot e enjoyed by the President of India?

(1) Absolute

(2) Qualified

(3) Suspensive

(4) Pocket

  1. Which one of the following functions of the Chief Secretary of the State is not correct?

(1) He acts as the principal advisor to the Governor if the Central Advisors are not appointed and the Presidents’ rule is imposed in the state.

(2) He acts as the Chief Advisor to the Governor if the Central Advisors are not appointed and the Presidents’ rule is imposed in the state.

(3) He acts as the Chairman by rotation, of the Zonal Council of which the state concerned is a member.

(4) He acts as the Chairman of co-ordination committees set up for departmental disputes.

  1. Which of the following is/are correct about CAG of India?

(a) He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

(b) His salary and conditions of service are determined by President

(c) He can be removed by the President on his own.

(d) The CAG’s (Duties powers and conditions of service) Act, 1973 separated accounts from audit in the Central Government.

Answer options:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) None of the above

(4) (a) and (d)

  1. Consider the following statements regarding with the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

(a) According to article 148 of Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed y the President.

(b) The main duty of the CAG is to audit Government expenditure.

(c) The CAG submitted his report to the Parliament.

Which of the statement/s given above is /are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) Only (a)

  1. The correct statement/s about calling attention notice is/are ____________.

(a) It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.

(b) It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

(c) Rajyaa Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device.

(d) It is innovation in the Parliamentary procedure since 1952.

Answer options:

(1) (a) only

(2) (d) only

(3) (a), (b), (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign y writing to each other.

(b) Attorney General and Solicitor General may resign by writing to each other.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Which of the following original principles of federal system seen in the Indian Federation?

Choose option:

(a) Dual Government System

(b) Distribution of power

(c) Single citizenship

(d) Bicameralism

(e) Independent Judicary

(f) Provisions of Emergency

Answer options:

(1) Only (a), (b), (c), (f)

(2) Only (a), (b), (d), (e)

(3) Only (c), (d), (e), (f)

(4) All of above

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members.

(2) There is a constitutional provision for nominating members to the Anglo-Indian Community to Rajya Sabha.

(3) There is no constitutional bar for nominated member to be appointed as a Union Minister.

(4) A nominated member can vote in the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding no-confidence against speaker of Legislative Assembly:

(a) One month’s notice for moving such resolution is required to be given.

(b) The Speaker does not preside when a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration.

(c) The Speaker can vote only in the first instant on such resolution but not exercise a casting vote.

Answer options:

(1) Statements (a), (b) are correct.

(2) Statements (b), (c) are correct.

(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.

(4) Only statements (a) is correct.

  1. How many judges were in Supreme Court of India, when the court was inaugurated with the new Constitution?

(1) Six

(2) Seven

(3) Eight

(4) Nine

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Chapter II of the Part V of the constitution is concerned with the state legislature.

(b) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand have less than 60 members of Legislative Assembly.

(c) The Governor may nominate such number of members of the Anglo-Indian Community to the legislative assembly as he considers appropriate.

(d) The provision for nomination of Anglo-Indians has been extended up to 2020.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (b), (c)

(2) (d) only

(3) (a) only

(4) (a), (d)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) 1/3 members of the Legislative Council of the State are nominated by the Governor.

(b) 1/3 members of the Legislative Council of the State are elected by State Assembly.

(c) 1/4 members of the Legislative Council of the State are elected by the Graduates.

Which of the statement/statements given above is /are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

  1. Which of the following expenditures is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of Indian?

(1) Salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court

(2) Salary and allowances of the judges of High Courts

(3) Salary and allowances of CAG of India

(4) Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Election Commission of the India?

(1) The Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.

(2) The Constitution has debarred the retiring Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

(3) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners have equal powers.

(4) The Elections Commissioners cannot be removed from office except in the manner and on the ground as a judge of the Supreme Court.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The first Lok Adalat was held in Chennai in 1986

(b) The chairman of Lok Adalat is a retired or sitting Judicial Officer.

(c) No appeal lies against the order of the Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements /s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), and (c)

  1. Which one of the following statements regarding judicial interpretation of Indian Federalism is not correct? (Particularly with ref. to S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India Case)

(1) Justice Ahmadi opined that it would be more appropriate to describe the Constitution of Indian as quasi-federal or unitary rather than a federal constitution.

(2) Justice Sawant and justice Kuldip  Singh regarded democracy and Federalism as essential features of the Indian Constitution.

(3) Justice Jeevan Reddy and Justice Agarwal opined that the expression federal or federal form of government has no fixed meaning.

(4) None of the above.

  1. According to the ‘Preamble’ of the Indian Constitution India is a ‘Republic’. What is the meaning of Republic ?

(a) There is no hereditary ruler

(b) The Sovereignty resides in the Central Cabinet

(c) The head of the government is elected by the people for a fixed period

(d) The head of the state is elected by the people for a fixed term.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) all above

(4) (a) and (d) only

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not a member of this house.

(b) The council of ministers is not resident is initiated only in the Rajya Sabha.

(c) The proposal to remove the vice-president is initiated only in the Rajya sabha.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) (b) and (c)

  1. Which of the following will be the consequences of the proclamation of ‘Financial Emergency’ by the President?

(a) The President can suspend all the fundamental rights of the citizens.

(b) The President can reduce the salaries and allowances of government employees excluding the judges of Suspreme Court and High Courts.

(c) The President can directions to the state to observe the principles of Financial propriety.

(d) All money bills passed by the state legislature can be reserved for the consideration of President.

Answer options:

(1) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.

(2) Statements (b), (c), (d) are correct.

(3) Statements (c), (d) are correct.

(4) Statements (a), (b), (d) are correct.

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Article 244 in part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas, designated as scheduled areas and tribal areas.

(2) The fifth Schedule deals with the Administration and control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled tribes.

(3) The sixth Schedule deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four North Eastern states states of Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya and Mizoram.

(4) The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled area.

  1. Identity the correct pair with regard to the recommendation of center-state relations:

Commission/Committee        Recommendation

(1) Sarkaria Commission — All India Services should be abolished.

(2) Rajmannar Committee – New All India Services like health, education, engineering and judiciary should be crated

(3) Punchhi Commission – All India Services should be strengthened

(4) Anandpur Sahib Resolution – Centre’s jurisdiction should be restricted only to defence, Foreign affairs, Communication and Currency.

  1. Statements (A) : The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Court in India is same.

Statements (R) : Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and Quo warranto.

(1) Both (A) and (R) statements are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) statements are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(3) Statements (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) Statements (A) is false but (R) is true.

  1. Which one of the following statements regarding council of ministers is not correct?

(1) Article 163 states that there is to be council of ministers of aid and advice the Governor.

(2) A Council of Ministers must always be the there to advice the Governor, even after the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

(3) Article 164 provides that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the legislative assembly and individually responsible to the Chief Minister.

(4) The Constitution does not assign any formal powers to the council of ministers.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The Judges of Subordibanate Court are appointed by the Governor in the Consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state.

(b) Session Court has power to impose the death penalty.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) None of these

  1. Select the correct statements:

(a) Two nominated members were in Nagar Panchayat.

(b) Executive officer is appointed by State Government.

(c) Executive officer is administrative head of Nagar Panchayat.

(d) Total number of members of Nagar Panchayat is 9 to 30.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a), (b), (c)

(2) Only (a), (b), (d)

(3) Only (b), (c), (d)

(4) Only (a), (c), (d)

  1. Select the incorrect statement – (Financial Survey of Maharashtra 2016-17):

(1) Number of Municipal Council in Maharashtra are 234

(2) Number of Nagar Panchayats in Maharashtra are 130

(3) Number of Cantonment Boards in Maharashtra are 7

(4) Number of Municipal Corporation in Maharashtra are 27.

  1. Select the correct statement/statements:

(a) Pandit Nehru State that , “The greater the powers of Panchayats, the better for the people”.

(b) In 1948, ministers of Local Self Government in the states met for the first time under the chairmanship of Rajkumari Amrit Kour.

Answer options:

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) Both are correct statements

(4) Both are incorrect statements

  1. According to Article 243 P of the Indian Constitution a ‘Metropolitan area’ means an area having population of _____________ lakhs or more and consisting minimum __________ Municipalities or panchayats or other contiguous areas.

(1) 16, 1

(2) 10, 2

(3) 12, 3

(4) 9, 2

  1. Select the correct statements:

(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee was Committee was established in January, 1957.

(b) Balwant Mehta was a ex-chief minister of Madhya Pradesh.

(c) Thakur Phulsing , B.G. Rao, D.P. Singh were other me mbers of committee.

(d) Rajasthan accepted three tier Panchayat Raj System firstly in India.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

  1. According to the Maharashtra Municipal Corporation Act, 1949 the minimum number of elected council shall be _________ for cities with population above 3 lakhs and upto 6 lakhs.

(1) 85

(2) 75

(3) 55

(4) 65

  1. Select the correct statement/statements:

State Legislature may, by law, provide representation in a municipality to:

(a) Experts in Municipal Administration

(b) Lok Sabha members from the Municipal Area

(c) Rajya Sabha members from the Municipal Area

(d) Person from the Anglo-Indian Community

Answer options:

(1) Only (a), (b), (d)

(2) Only (a), (c), (d)

(3) Only (b), (c), (d)

(4) Only (a), (b), (c)

  1. State the correct statement/Statements:

(a) Maharashtra became the first state of India, implement the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

(b) Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland were exempted from 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

Answer options:

(1)  Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. The post of the District Collector was created in India by the East India Company in _________.

(1) 1857

(2) 1772

(3) 1818

(4) 1836

  1. Select the incorrect statement – (Municipal Corporation)

(1) Number of members of Standing Committee are 16.

(2) The quorum for meeting of Standing Committee is 5.

(3) The tenure of Chairman of Standing Committee is 2½ years.

(4) Currently the tenure of mayor of Mahanagar Palika is  2½ years.

  1. When the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act was implemented in India?

(1) 20 April, 1993

(2) 1 June, 1993

(3) 24 April, 1993

(4) None of the above

76.The quorum for General Meeting of Municipal Council ___________ of total number of members

(1) 1/2

(2) 1/3

(3) 1/10

(4) 1/4

  1. Panchayats can’t implement schemes for economic development and social justice related to which of the following matters?

(1) Fisheries

(2) Fuel and fodder

(3) Drinking water

(4) Khadi

Answer options:

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) None of the above

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (d)

  1. Disputes between two States falls under the Jurisdiction of ____________.

(1) High Court of any State

(2) Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

(3) Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

(4) Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

(5) None of the above

  1. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and:

(a) Has been for at least Five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in Succession ; or

(b) Has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession ; or

(c) Is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) All of the above

  1. Under which of the following Article of the Constitution of India the Supreme Court has been designated as guardian of fundamental Rights of the citizen?

(1) Article 21

(2) Article 30

(3) Article 226

(4) None of above

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The Kishori Shakti Yojana at improving the nutritional and health status of women and their self development.

(b) The Rastriya mahila Kosh provides Large amount credit.

(c) Swawlamban Scheme provides training and skills to woman in traditional and non-traditional trades.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) In 2009-10, the rate of development of service sector in Maharashtra was 9.6%

(b) In 2010-11, the share of service sector is 61% in Maharashtra State Gross Domestic Product.

(c) In 2012-13, the share of Building construction sector was 22% in the Maharashtra state Gross Domestic Product.

Which of the statement/s above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. In which state per capita net domestic product recorded lowest during 2005-06 to 2010-11 ?

(1) Bihar

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Orrisa

(4) West – Bengal

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The planning process in India suffered from the absence financial strategy.

(b) The structural retrogression was also accompanied by low rate of industrial growth.

(c) The political philosophy of economic planning in India has been right.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Which of the following is not reason of acceptance of planning in India?

(1) Inadequate natural resources

(2) Limitations of Market mechanism

(3) Need for social justice

(4) Resource mobilization and allocation for development

  1. Which sector has registered faster growth during (1993-94 to 2009-10) in employment Generation?

(1) Agriculture

(2) Construction

(3) Mining

(4) Trade

 

 

 

 

 

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