Home / Question Papers / MPSC Maharashtra Engineering [Electrical-Mechanical] Services, Gr-B– 2014-Paper-2

MPSC Maharashtra Engineering [Electrical-Mechanical] Services, Gr-B– 2014-Paper-2

MPSC Mharashtra Engineering [Electrical-Mechanical] Services, Gr-B– 2014-Paper-2

  1. Mollier diagram for a pure substance is a plot of ______.

(1) ‘T – S

(2) h-S

(3) P – V

(4) None of the above

  1. The steam whose dryness fraction is to be determined, is at a pressure of 40 bar. Expected dryness fraction is approximately 0.85. The result can be obtained by:

(1) Employing only throttling calorimeter

(2) Employing separating and throttling calorimeter

(3) Employing two throttling calorimeters

(4) None of the above as dryness fraction is too low to be determined by a calorimeter

  1. Which of the following is an /are irreversible process/processes?

(1) Any process involving friction

(2) Heat transfer across a finite temperature difference

(3) Turbulent flow

(4) All of the above.

  1. Elongation of a straight bar of length L, Modulus of Elasticity E, and cross-sectional area A, which is hanging vertically from a fixed ceiling due to its own weight (W) is:

(1) WL/2AE

(2) 2WL/AE

(3) WA/2LE

(4) 2WA/LE

  1. A cantilever of uniform section carries a point load, P at the free end. The strain energy stored by cantilever is: (Modulus of Elasticity = E)

(1) Pl36171

(2) P2l366ET

(3) P3l3/6EI

(4) Pl/6EI

  1. For an element in pure shear the principal planes are oriented at (w.r.t x-axis):

(1) 00

(2) 450

(3) 900

(4) 22.50

  1. Martensite forms during _________ cooling of austenite.

(1) Isothermal

(2) Gradual

(3) Slow

(4) Fast

  1. For high temperature applications _______ materials are to be avoided.

(1) Fine grained

(2) Course grained

(3) iron-based

(4) None of the above

  1. In a 0.35 wt% C steel (99.15 wt% Fe) what would be the percentage of total ferrite and cementite just below the eutectoid temperature?

(1) 50% and 50%

(2) 5% and 95%

(3) 70% and 30%

(4) 95% and 5%

  1. Which of the following is not related to work hardening?

(1) Frank – Reed source

(2) Dislocations

(3) Cohesive strength

(4) None of the above.

  1. ________ is a most powerful solid solution strengthener for steel.

(1) Tungsten

(2) Chromium

(3) Phosphorus

(4) Manganese

  1. The purpose of mar tempering is:

(1) To minimise warping

(2) To maximize distortion and cracking

(3) To maximize percentage of Bainite

(4) To reduce hardness

  1. A cylindrical copper rod is cold worked to 12.2 mm diameter from 15.2 mm diameter. Find the percentage of cold work.

(1) 35.6

(2) 40 8

(3) 24.5

(4) 30.5

  1. Overall heat transfer coefficient is calculated in case of:

(1) Purely conduction phenomenon

(2) Purely convection phenomenon

(3) combined conduction – convection phenomenon

(4) Purely radiation phenomenon

  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) At thermal equilibrium, the emissivity and absorptivity are same

(2) Glasses are transparent to thermal radiations at short wavelengths

(3) The emissivity of a smooth surface IS lower compared to a rough surface of the same material

(4) Selective surfaces have same value of emissivity throughout the entire range of wavelength.

  1. Modes of mass transfer are:

(1) Diffusion

(2) Convection

(3) Change of phase

(2) All of the above

  1. Arrange the following materials in the increasing order of their thermal conductivity. Copper, Carbon steel, Nichrome, Silver

(1) Carbon steel, Silver, Nichrome, Copper

(2) Copper, Nichrome, Silver, Carbon steel

(3) Nichrome, Carbon steel, Copper, Silver

(4) Silver, Copper, Carbon steel, Nichrome

  1. Consider the following statements regarding condensation heat transfer.

(a) For a single Lube, horizontal position is preferred over vertical position for better heat transfer.

(b) Heat transfer coefficient decreases if the vapour stream moves at high velocity.

(c) Condensation of steam on an oily surface is dropwise.

(d) Condensation of pure benzene vapour is always dropwise.

Of these statements:

(1) (a) and (b) arc correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (c) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

  1. A rotating shaft subjected to a steady, transverse – bending load will be designed for:

(1) Fully reversed stress

(2) Repeated stress

(3) Fluctuating stress

(4) Static stress

  1. Opening and closing of door using hydraulic door closer is an example of:

(1) Under damped system

(2) Critically damped system

(3) Over damped system

(4) Undammed system

  1. For a critically damped system, the motion will be:

(1) Periodic

(2) Aperiodic

(3) Harmonic

(4) Non – harmonic

  1. Match the following:

(a) Imbalance in diesel engine   (i) can cause failure of turbine

(b) Vibration in machine tools during metal cutting   (ii) can cause wheels of locomotive to rise off the track

(c) Blade and disk vibration   (iii) can cause failure of bridge

(d) Wind induced vibration   (iv) can give rise to chatter

Answer options:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

  1. The area under stress – strain curve at any particular strain is called as:

(i) Resilience

(2) Compliance

(3) Strain energy

(4) Toughness

  1. Which is more commonly used fatigue failure criteria for designing parts subjected to fluctuating loads?

(1) Soderberg line

(2) Goodman line

(3) Modified – Goodman line

(4) Gerber parabola

  1. At critical speed shaft tends to vibrate in:

(1) Longitudinal direction

(2) Transverse direction

(3) Both longitudinal and transverse direction

(4) None of the above

  1. Data for an put to the ALU is temporarily stored in:

(1) Status registers

(2) Accumulator registers

(3) program counter register

(4) Memory address register

  1. Rodless prtrumatic actuators are used for positioning:

(1) Heavy loads

(2) Medium loads

(3) Light loads

(4) All of the above

  1. The basis for determining the angle of departure from complex open-loop pole is:

(1) Angles made by other open – loop poles and zeros to the concerned complex open – loop pole

(2) Angle and magnitude of other open – loop poles and zeros to the concerned complex open – loop pole

(3) Magnitude of other open – loops poles and zeros to the concerned complex open – Imp pole

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the {allowing examples is an example of Mechatronics system?

(1) Auto locus and Auto exposure camera

(2) Truck smart suspension system

(3) Automated production line

(4) All of the above.

  1. A pair of link having surface or area contact between the members is known as:

(1) Sliding pail

(2) Turning pair

(3) Lower pair

(4) Higher pair

  1. If the axes of the first and the last wheels of a compound gear coincide, it is called a :

(1) Simple gear train

(2) Compound gear train

(3) Epicycle gear train

(4) Reverted gear train

  1. Which of the following components can be manufactured by powder metallurgy methods?

(a) Carbide tool tips

(b) Bearings

(c) Filters

(d) Brake linings

Select the proper answer from the following:

(1) (a). (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  1. The angle between the face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is known as ______

(1) Rake angle

(2) Clearance angle

(3) Lip angle

(4) Point angle

  1. In gas welding carburizing flame is obtained by:

(a) Excess of acetylene

(b) Excess of oxygen

(c) Cxcess of hydrogen

(d) None

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (d) only

  1. Intensity of turbulence is:

(1) The average K. E. of turbulence.

(2) The violence of turbulent fluctuations and is measured by the RMS value of velocity fluctuations.

(3) The mean time internal between the reversals in the sign of velocity fluctuation

(4) None of the above.

  1. Which of the following losses exist in hydraulic pumps?

(1) Impeller recirculation losses

(2) Friction losses

(3) Shock losses.

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is/are dimensionless turbine parameters?

(1) Head coefficient

(2) Capacity coefficient

(3) Power coefficient

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following statements IS true?

(1) ‘The viscosity of liquid increases but that of gases decreases with increase in temperature.

(2)The viscosity of liquid decreases but that of gases increases with increase in temperature.

(3) There is no effect of rise in temperature on viscosity of liquids and gases

(4) In gases, molecular activity decreases with rise in temperature.

  1. Repeatability of measuring process is called as:

(1) Accuracy

(2) Precision

(3) Sensitivity

(4) Interchangeability

  1. Which of the following instruments is/are used for angle measurement?

(1) Universal Beval Protractor

(2) Sine Bar

(3) Autocollimator

(4) All of the above

  1. In axially loaded elastic member strain E is:

(1) Directly proportional to pressure and inversely proportional to Young’s modulus.

(2) Inversely proportional to pressure and directly proportional to Young’s modulus.

(3) Inversely proportional Lo area and inversely proportional to pressure.

(4) Directly proportional to area and inversely proportional to Young’s modulus

  1. Following statements are related to the strain gauge wires:

(a) Strain gauge wire should have high resistance

(b) Strain gauge wire should have low elastic limit

(c) Strain gauge wire should be insensitive to temperature ill both its physical and electrical properties.

Of these _____

(1) (a) is true and (b) and (c) are false

(2) (b) is true and (a) and (c) are false

(3) (a) and (c) are true and (b) is false

(4) All (a), (b), and (c) are true.

  1. Which among the following has negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

(1) K- type thermocouple

(2) Resistance temperature detector

(3) Thermistor

(4) Thermocouple

  1. Total Range of input values possible for a given output is:

(1) Span

(2) Resolution

(3) Dead zone

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following dispatching rules tends to minimize job flow time?

(1) FCFS: First Come, First Serve

(2) SPT: Shortest Processing Time

(3) LPT : Longest Processing Time

(4) EDD: Earliest Due Date

  1. The most appropriate sequencing rule to use if the goal is to dynamically track the progress of jobs and establish relative priority on a common basis:

(1) Shortest Processing time

(2) Earliest Due Date

(3) Critical ratio

(4) Johnson’s ratio

  1. To find the optimal solution to a linear programming problem using the graphical method:

(1) Find the feasible point that is closest to the origin

(2) Find the feasible point that is at the highest location

(3) Find the feasible point that is farthest away from the origin

(4) None of the above.

  1. Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements?

(1) Gross requirement – Planned order receipts

(2) Gross requirement – On Hand – Planned order receipts

(3) Gross requirement – On Hand + Planned order receipts

(4) None of the above

  1. A master production schedule specifies:

(1) The financial resources required for production

(2) What component is to be made, and when

(3) What product is to be made, and when

(4) The labour hours required for production

  1. A firm uses simple exponential smoothing with α=0.02 to forecast demand. The forecast for the first week of January was 400 units, where as actual demand turned out to be 450 units. Forecast the demand for the second week of January.

(1) 410

(2) 395

(3) 405.7

(4) None of the above

  1. In PERT, each activity requires:

(1) An optimistic time

(2) A most likely time

(3) a pessimistic time

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

(a) Brushless IJC motor is an AC machine

(b) Stepper motor is always used with closed loop control

(c) Induction generator is preferred in Thermal power stations

(d) None of the above

  1. In a 3 – phase induction motor, the variable mechanical load is electrically represented by:

(1) A variable resistance only.

(2) A variable inductance only.

(3) A variable capacitance only.

(4) A combination of variable resistance and variable inductance.

  1. For power transformer, max _____ with _______ power factor and is highest at _______ power factor.

(1) Increases, increasing, unity

(2) Decreases, increasing, leading

(3) Increases, decreasing, lagging

(4) Decreases, decreasing, unity

  1. In a transformer the exciting current has two components – magnetizing component and core – loss component. Neglecting leakage impedance drop:

(1) Both of them lag the impressed voltage by 900.

(2) Both of them are in phase with the impressed voltage.

(3) The former lags the impressed voltage by 900 while the later is in phase with the impressed voltage.

(4) The former is in phase with the impressed voltage while the later lags the impressed voltage by 900.

  1. The starting torque of an induction motor will be maximum when:

(1) Started by an auto transformer

(2) Started by star delta starting

(3) Directly switched on

(4) Started by reactance starting

  1. A 3 – phase synchronous motor driving a constant load torque draws power from the infinite bus at a loading power factor. If the excitation is increased:

(1) The power angle decreases while power factor increases.

(2) The power angle Increases white power factor decreases.

(3) Both power angle and power factor increase.

(4) Both power angle and power factor decrease

  1. Under the AB C: system of inventory priorities a class A item is:

(1) The 10% of high value items that account for around 80% the total stock value.

(2) The 80% of high value items that account for around 20% the total stock value.

(3) The 80% of high value items that account for around 80% the total stock value.

(4) None of the above

  1. The Regulatory Commission while determining the cross subsidy reduction roadmap for the Distribution licensees may consider factors:

(1) Tariff shock to affected consumers

(2) Future increases in distribution and retail costs

(3) Changes in consumer mix

(4) All of the above

  1. The manufacturing philosophy and technique that seek the elimination of waste and continuous improvement:

(1) MRP

(2) JIT

(3) Theory of constraints

(4) All of the above

  1. If the neutral in 3 phase, 4 wire unbalanced system is disconnected, the potential difference across high resistance will _____ and that across the low resistance wil _____

(1) Increase, increase

(2) Increase, decrease

(3) Decrease, decrease

(4) Decrease, increase

  1. The low voltage (LT) cables are used for operating voltage upto ______ volt and the super tension (ST) cables for operating voltage up to ______ volt.

(1) 1000 V, 33000 V

(2) 33000 V, 66000 V

(3) 1000 V, 66000 V

(4) 1000 V, 11000 V

  1. According to the Electricity Act, 2003, “Subsidizing Consumer Category” means the consumer category:

(1) Which pays tariff more than its cost of supply as determined by the Commission.

(2) Which pays tariff less than its cost of supply as determined by the Commission.

(3) Which pays tariff more or less than its cost of supply as determined by the Commission.

(4) Both (2) and (3).

  1. The transfer function of the system is:

(1) Laplace transform of its impulse response and is applicable to linear -time invariant system only

(2) Fourier transform of its impulse response and is applicable to linear – time invariant system only

(3) Laplace transform of its step response and is applicable to linear – time invariant system only

(4) Fourier transform of its step response and is applicable to linear – time invariant system only

  1. Synchro control transformer is an electro-mechanical device which produces:

(a) Single phase voltage

(b) Three phase voltage

(c) Voltage proportional to ‘sine’ of the angle of rotor with respect to stator magnetic field.

(d) Voltage proportional to ‘tan’ of the angle of rotor. With respect to stator magnetic field.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

  1. A feedback control system:

(a) Reduces sensitivity to variation in parameters in forward path.

(b) Reduces sensitivity to variation in parameters in feedback path.

(c) Increases sensitivity to variation in parameters in feedback path.

(d) Do not reduce the sensitivity to variations in parameters in feedback path.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (a) only

(4) (a) and (c)

  1. The effect of PI controller on system response is:

(a) Eliminate steady state error.

(b) Decreases rise time and increases overshoot and setting time

(c) Increases rise time and decreases overshoot and setting time

(d) Increases overshoot and decreases rise time and setting time

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

  1. AC servomotors used in low power control applications are basically:

(1) Synchronous motors

(2) Three phase induction motors

(3) Two phase induction motors

(4) Universal motors

  1. Use of Star – Delta starter in Induction motor, reduces starting torque to:

(1) Half of normal torque.

(2) One-fourth of torque wit11 direct start.

(3) One-third of normal starting torque.

(4) Seventy percent of normal starting torque.

  1. Armature voltage control of dc motor is useful in which of the following cases?

(1) Above base speed with constant torque

(2) Below base speed with constant power

(3) Above base speed with constant power

(4) Below base speed with constant torque

  1. Which one of the following drives can be defined as digital electro-mechanical device where moment of shaft is in discrete angle?

(1) Shaded Pole h40tor

(2) Stepper Motor

(3) D. C servomotor

(4) Capacitor split singe phase motor

  1. In which type of Electric braking generated energy is supplied to the source during braking?

(1) Plugging

(2) Regenerative braking

(3) Dynamic braking

(4) Reverse voltage braking

  1. In V/F speed control method of Induction motor, ratio of voltage to frequency is maintained constant to achieve :

(1) Constant Running torque

(2) Constant flux

(3) Constant current

(4) Constant speed

  1. In closed – loop speed control of Electric Drive, which two controllers are used for safe operation?

(1) Speed controller and voltage controller

(2) Speed controller and current controller

(3) Voltage and current controller

(4) Proportional and integral controller

  1. Static Scherbius Drive is used for speed control of:

(1) Wound rotor Induction Motor below synchronous speed

(2) Squirrel cage Induction Motor above synchronous speed

(3) Squirrel cage Induction Motor below synchronous speed

(4) D. C shunt motor below base speed.

  1. Dual converter fed D.C Drive can operate in:

(1) First and second quadrant of operation

(2) First and third quadrant of operation

(3) All four quadrants of operation

(4) None of the above

  1. Electrical system consisting one of the following combination is called as Electric Drive.

(1) Power converter, Sensors, Electric load

(2) Power modulator, Feedback control and motor

(3) Power modulator, Electric Motor and load

(4) Power converter, Motor and rotational load

  1. The total torque developed in Electric Drive is divided as:

(1) Friction torque, Wind age torque and useful torque

(2) Friction torque, loss torque, output torque

(3) Friction torque, load torque, useful torque

(4) Useful torque, fluctuating torque, load torque

  1. The economic load dispatch is carried out on the basis of_____

(1) Equal incremental cost criteria

(2) Equal area criteria

(3) Loss minimization criteria

(4) Maximize generation criteria

  1. For the same maximum demand, if load factor is decreased the cost of energy is ________ .

(1) Increased

(2) Decreased

(3) Not affected

(4) Remains constant

  1. Load frequency control is achieved by properly matching the individual machines:

(1) Reactive power

(2) Generated voltages

(3) Turbine inputs

(4) All of the above

  1. Maintaining net injected real power constant, the minimization of the real injected power Pi slack bus is also known as ________ problem.

(1) Optimal real power flow

(2) Optimal load scheduling

(3) Optimal generation scheduling

(4) Optimal reactive power flow

  1. Unscheduled Interchange charges (UI charges) are payable/receivable if

(i) A beneficiary overdraws power, thus by decreasing the frequency

(ii) A beneficiary underdraws power, thus by increasing the frequency

(iii) A generator generates more than the schedule, thereby increasing the frequency

(iv) A generator generates less than the schedule, thereby decreasing the frequency

(1) Only (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (i) and (iii)

(3) Only (iii) and (iv)

(4) All of the above

  1. In the energy-broker system the members exchange ________ quotations of prices at which each is willing to buy and sell energy.

(1) Monthly

(2) Weekly

(3) Hourly

(4) Yearly

  1. 0 – 10 mA PMMC ammeter is connected in series with the 0.004 ohm resistance the current flowing through the resistance is 4 mA. If the bottom control spring snaps suddenly, what will be the ammeter reading?

(1) 4 mA

(2) 1 mA

(3) 0 mA, (zero)

(4) 8 mA

  1. Temperature range (in “C) for platinum type Resistance Thermometer is:

(1) 0 to 180

(2) -260 to 1100

(3) – 220 to 300

(4) – 200 to 1000

  1. Find the odd man out:

(1) Ammeter – Voltmeter method

(2) Substitution method

(3) Ohmmeter method

(4) Mega ohm meter

  1. A 20 kW resistive load is connected to a 440 V supply through digital energy meter. If the load is continuously on from 6.00 am to 11.00 am. What will be the reading of energy meter after 3 hours? Consider initial energy meter reading as 5 unit before starting the load.

(1) 100 kW Hour

(2) 20 kW Hour

(3) 65 kW Hour

(4) 60 kW Hour

  1. A CRO screen has ten devisions on the horizontal scale. If voltage signal V =5 x sin (314t +450) is examined with the base setting 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be:

(1) 0.5 cycles

(2) 2.5 cycles

(3) 5 cycles

(4) 10 cycles

  1. Damper winding is designed in synchronous motor to:

(1) Suppress negative sequence field and to damp oscillations during hunting.

(2) Provide starting torque and damping power during hunting.

(3) Provide maximum torque and avoid hunting.

(4) Avoid crawling and cogging.

  1. In three phase induction motor. Higher value of average flux density in air gap results in:

(1) Higher overload capacity and improved power factor

(2) Lower overload capacity and improved power factor

(3) Higher overload capacity and poor power factor

(4) Lower overload capacity and poor power factor

  1. A short time intermittent rating of electric motor is considered while selecting motor for:

(1) Blowers

(2) Punching machine

(3) Reciprocating compressor

(4) Sirens

  1. Which is the most critical part in the design of electrical machines?

(1) Conductor

(2) Core

(3) Insulation

(4) Air gap

  1. By providing deep narrow slots in the rotor punching in induction motor:

(1) Starting torque can be increased

(2) Running torque can be reduced

(3) Efficiency can be improved

(4) None of the above

  1. The humming sound in a transformer is due to:

(1) Vibration in cooling oil

(2) Vibration in lamination

(3) Sinusoidal voltage waveform

(4) Inductance of the transformer winding

  1. In D.C armature design, the following details are given: 6 poles, 43 slots, 4 circuits with 43 segments, then the type of winding is:

(1) Singly re – entrant duplex wave winding

(2) Doubly re – entrant duplex wave winding

(3) Singly re – entrant duplex lap winding

(4) Doubly re – entrant duplex lap winding

  1. Electrical machine designed for higher speed for given output power results in:

(1) Smaller size and higher cost

(2) Smaller size and lower cost

(3) Larger size and lower cost

(4) Larger size and higher cost

  1. The amount of heat given out due to combustion of kg of solid or liquid fuel or 1 cum of gaseous fuel is called as:

(1) Sensible heat

(2) Calorific value

(3) Latent heat

(4) Heat factor

  1. The role of moderator in a nuclear reactor is to:

(1) Control the speed of neutrons in chain reaction

(2) Separate the neutrons

(3) Release the energy from nucleolus

(4) Act as catalyst for chain reaction

  1. Compounding of steam turbine is done for:

(1) reducing the work done

(2) Increasing the rotor speed

(3) Reducing the rotor speed

(4) Balancing the turbine

  1. Load factor of a power plant is defined as:

(1) Maximum demand / average load

(2) Maximum demand x average load

(3) Average load / maximum demand

(4) (1 / maximum demand x average load) x 100

  1. Quantity of heat ‘Q’ supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the following:

(1) sensible heat

(2) latent heat

(3) saturation temperature

(4) atmospheric temperature

  1. The steam turbine in which the pressure of steam falls in the nozzles and remains almost constant in the blade ring is called as:

(1) Reaction turbine

(2) Impulse turbine

(3) Francis turbine

(4) Back pressure turbine

  1. Hydrograph is the graph showing the relation between:

(1) discharge of flowing water with respect to head

(2) discharge of flowing water with respect to time

(3) discharge of flowing water with respect to rainfall

(4) discharge of flowing water with respect to catchment area

  1. In forced circulation boilers, about 90% of water is recalculated without evaporation. The circulation ratio is:

(1) 0.1

(2) 0.9

(3) 9

(4) 10

  1. Solar radiations reach at earth surface in two forms, one as direct beam and second as _________ radiation.

(1) infrared

(2) diffused

(3) dispersed

(4) ultraviolet

  1. Which of the wind patterns need to be looked at when evaluating wind sites for installation?

(1) diurnal; nocturnal

(2) short term; long term

(3) summer; winter

(4) All of the above

  1. In solar pond, bottom layer is made highly salty to:

(1) suppress convection to maintain hot water at bottom.

(2) increase reflection of radiations.

(3) increase convection to reduce temperature.

(4) increase convection to rise up hot water.

  1. The axis of a horizontal axis wind turbine is:

(1) parallel to the ground and located at top of the tower

(2) perpendicular to the ground and located at top of the tower

(3) parallel to the ground and located at ground level

(4) perpendicular to the ground and located at ground level

  1. In fuel celI, electro-chemical reaction which produces electric power requires:

(1) hydrogen and oxygen as input and generate water and heat as resultant.

(2) hydrogen and water as input and generate oxygen and heat as resultant.

(3) hydrogen and heat as input and generate oxygen and water as resultant.

(4) hydrogen as input and oxygen, heat and water as resultant.

  1. Wind turbine blades are subjected to which of the following types of loads?

(1) Transient

(2) Translational and Transient

(3) Stochastic and Transient

(4) Transitional and Stochastic

  1. Efficiency of fuel cell is highest because:

(1) heat energy of fuel is directly converted into electrical energy

(2) kinetic energy in fuel is converted into heat energy

(3) chemical energy of fuel is directly converted into electrical energy

(4) potential energy of fuel is converted into electrical energy

  1. The solar energy is a huge source and the power from the sun intercepted by earth is about:

(1) 1.8 GW

(2) 1.8 x 1011 MW

(3) 5.0 x 103 GW

(4) 100 GW

  1. The device which intercepts incident solar radiation and converts it into heat is called as:

(1) Solar reflector

(2) Solar absorber

(3) Solar collector

(4) Solar radiator


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