MPSC Maharashtra Agriculture Services Main Exam-2017- Paper-2- Agriculture Engineering

MPSC Maharashtra Agriculture Services Main Exam-2017- Paper-2- Agriculture Engineering

1. In drying, _______ causes movement of moisture from inside of kernel to the surface.

(1) Vapour pressure gradient

(2) Temperature gradient

(3) Humidity gradient

(4) None of the above

2. The dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature of moist air are equal when relative humidity (RH) is _______ percent.

(1) Zero

(2) 10

(3) 50

(4) 100

3. The electrical resistance of grain depends upon

(1) Grain compaction

(2) Grain temperature

(3) Moisture present in grain

(4) All of the above

4. The shape of a lemon fruit is classified as _________ spheroid.

(1) Oblate

(2) Prolate

(3) Ovate

(4) Obovate

5. The angle of repose _______ with an increase in the moisture content of food materials.

(1) Increases

(2) Decreases

(3) Either increases or decreases

(4) Remains unchanged

6. In Rheology, the Maxwell model is represented as

(1) Dashpot

(2) Spring

(3) Spring and dashpot in parallel

(4) Spring and dashpot in series

7. The economical spacing of roof trusses work out to be _______ of span.

(1) 1/3 to 1/5

(2) 1/6 to 1/8

(3) 1/9 to 1/11

(4) 1/12 to 1/14

8. _______ is especially useful for removing lightweight infertile seeds from seed stock and hence improves seed germination.

(1) Screen cleaner

(2) Specific gravity separator

(3) Spiral separator

(4) Indented cylinder separator

9. In air screen cleaners, for cleaning of round shaped grains, ______ are used.

(1) Top screen round holes and bottom screen slotted holes

(2) Top screen slotted holes and bottom screen round holes

(3) Top screen triangular holes and bottom screen slotted holes

(4) Top screen slotted holes and bottom screen triangular holes

10. The hammer mill is assumed to reduce size by

(1) Impact

(2) Compression

(3) Shearing

(4) Crushing

11. Majority of HTST pasteurizers use _______ heat exchangers with sections for regenerative heating, heating and cooling.

(1) Plate type

(2) double pipe

(3) Shell and tubes

(4) Shell and coil

12. Fan laws state that the pressure developed by a centrifugal pump varies as

(1) Its rotational speed

(2) Square of rotational speed

(3) Cube of rotational speed

(4) Independent on its rotational speed

13. Planck’s law can be used for estimation of

(1) Time of freezing

(2) Time of drying

(3) Time of boiling

(4) Time of germination

14. The amount of heat conducted across unit area and unit thickness of a material in unit time for unit change in temperature is

(1) Enthalpy

(2) Specific heat

(3) Thermal diffusivity

(4) Thermal conductivity

15. _______ permits early harvest of crops.

(1) Storage

(2) Cooling

(3) Drying

(4) None of the above

16. The value of dry basis moisture content is ______ the wet basis moisture content.

(1) Less than

(2) Equal to

(3) More than

(4) None of the above

17. _______ properties may be defined as those which affect the behaviour of agricultural material under applied force.

(1) Thermal

(2) Mechanical

(3) Rheological

(4) None of the above

18. ________ properties may be defined as the science which deals with the deformation and flow of material under action of applied forces.

(1) Rheological

(2) Mechanical

(3) Thermal

(4) None of the above

19. The ________ separates materials on the basis of difference in length of various constituents.

(1) Air-screen cleaner

(2) Specific gravity separator

(3) Disk separator

(4) Spiral separator

20. The major purpose of blanching is to inactivate _________ which would otherwise lead to quality reduction in processed food.

(1) Enzymes

(2) micro-organisms

(3) Yeast

(4) Insects

21. Wind speeds increase with height. Wind speeds have traditionally been measured at a standard height of ______ where they are found to be _______ greater, than close to the surface.

(1) 5.0 metres; 10 to 20%

(2) 7.0 metres; 15 to 25%

(3) 10.0 metres; 20 to 25%

(4) 8.0 metres; 15 to 20%

22. The best suited material for the construction of transformer core is

(1) Silicon steel

(2) Hard steel

(3) Wrought iron

(4) Copper

23. While conducting a short-circuit test on a transformer, the following side is short-circuited:

(1) High voltage side

(2) Low voltage side

(3) Primary side

(4) Secondary side

24. ________ is one of the low cost fences that is widely used for confining diary cattle.

(1) Barbed wire fence

(2) Plain wire fence

(3) Welded wire fence

(4) Electric fence

25. The core of a transformer is made up of laminations in order to

(1) Reduce hysteresis loss

(2) Reduce eddy current loss

(3) Reduce copper loss

(4) Reduce hysteresis and eddy current losses

26. The most widely used material of a solar cell is

(1) Arsenic

(2) Aluminium

(3) Silicon

(4) Steel

27. As air moves across the surface of the Earth, its speed and direction changes by the local topography as well as by

(1) Local heating

(2) Local cooling

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

28. Regarding testing of a transformer, the following statements are made:
29. Open circuit and short circuit tests can determine efficiency only.
30. Open circuit and short circuit tests are simple to conduct.
31. Power required to carry out open circuit and short circuit tests is very large compared with full-load output of a transformer.
32. Direct loading method can also be used to determine efficiency and regulation of a transformer.

Out of the above, following statements is/are true:

(1) a, band d only

(3) b, c and d only

(2) a and d only

(4) b and d only

29. Biogas consists of

(1) Only methane

(2) Methane and C02 with same impurities

(3) A special organic gas

(4) None of the above

30. In this type of energy conversion system, it will have a cut-in speed, rated speed and cut-out speed.

(1) Solar

(2) OTEC

(3) Wind

(4) Thermal

31. The compressive strength of concrete used for different structures is in the range of

(1) 300 – 700 kg/cm²

(2) 300 – 700 N/m-m²

(3) (3) 30 – 70 kg/cm²

(4) (4) 100 – 500 N/m-m²

32. A building is to be constructed on alluvial soil having a bearing pressure of 6000 kg1sq.m. What shall be the width of masonry foundation having 4000 kg of dead load per running metre of the wall?

(1) 0.4 m

(2) 0.8 m

(3) 0.12 m

(4) None of the above

33. The flooring material which is a mixture of linseed oil, gums and resins, pigments, wood floor, cork dust and other filling materials is termed as

(1) Linoleum

(2) Hindaleum

(3) Magnesite

(4) Dolomite

34. Use of steel trusses is economical when it is used for spans greater than

(1) 12 m

(2) 8 m

(3) 16 m

(4) 20 m

35. In shallow foundations, if the wall rests directly on foundation concrete without any step, it is called

(1) Spread footing

(2) Swallow footing

(3) RCC pier

(4) Simple footing

36. Which equation is used to estimate the velocity of flow through a channel in designing grass water ways?

(1) Rancer’s equation

(2) Israelson equation

(3) Rational equation

(4) Manning’s equation

37. Which one of the following is not a type of bench terrace?

(1) Level

(2) Inwardly slopping

(3) Outwardly slopping

(4) Along contour

38. Erosivity is defined as

(1) Capacity of wind to cause erosion

(2) Capacity of rain to cause erosion

(3) Vulnerability of soil susceptible for erosion

(4) None of the above

39. He was the first man who discovered that an electromotive force (emf) is generated in a conductor when the conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force (flux).

(1) Faraday

(2) Newton

(3) Einstein

(4) Pascal

40. Saltation, suspension and surface creep forms of movement of soil particles is associated with which type of soil erosion from the following?

(1) Gully erosion

(2) Rill erosion

(3) Wind erosion

(4) None of the above

41. What will be the vertical interval between two consecutive contour bunds if the land slope is 3% ?

(1) 0.90 m

(2) 0.30 m

(3) 3.00 m

(4) 1.20 m

42. Which one of the following is not a permanent gully control structure?

(1) Drop spillway

(2) Chute spillway

(3) Drop inlet spillway

(4) Brushwood dam

43. Soil erosion which results in the form of uniform removal of soil from land surface is termed as

(1) Splash erosion

(2) Rill erosion

(3) Sheet erosion

(4) Gully erosion

44. In case of streams, stream bank erosion generally takes place on the ______ side of the stream.

(1) Convex

(2) Concave

(3) Downstream

(4) Top

45. The damaging effect of floods depends on their super criticality which is measured by the Froude number (Fr).

The flow is said to be supercritical, if

(1) Fr < 1

(2) Fr = 1

(3) Fr > 1

(4) Fr < 1

46. Threshold rainfall is defined as

(1) Cumulative rainfall before initiation of run off

(2) Cumulative rainfall of storm

(3) Total daily rainfall

(4) None of the above

47. Which one of the following is not an artificial Rainwater Harvesting technique?

(1) Rock fracturing

(2) Bore blast technique

(3) Afforestation

(4) Construction of jacket around the well

48. A rectangular farm pond has the following dimensions:
49. Length = 10 m
50. Width = 5 m
51. Depth = 1 m

If it is totally filled in, what will the volume be in litres?

(1) 50

(2) 500

(3) 5,000

(4) 50,000

49. A farm pond has the following specifications:
50. Bottom surface = 5 x 5 m
51. Depth = 5 m
52. Side slopes = 1 H : 1 V

(on all the sides)

What will the size of the top of the farm pond be?

(1) 10mx 10 m

(2) 20mx 20 m

(3) 15 m x 15 m

(4) 20 m x 10 m

50. Which one of the following options cannot be included in the concept of watershed development?

(1) Construction of major dams

(2) Optimal management of land water resources

(3) Socio-economic and institutional development

(4) Biodiversity protection

51. Delineation of a watershed is an exercise of

(1) Area wise delineation

(2) Land use wise delineation

(3) Topographically drainage stream wise delineation

(4) None of the above

52. Out of different biological measures used to control erosion in a watershed, which one of the following is not a biological measure?

(1) Contour strip cropping

(2) Mixed cropping

(3) Buffer strip cropping

(4) Field strip cropping

53. Which of the following types of farm ponds should be selected where ground water table rise is within a few metres from the ground surface?

(1) Embankment type

(2) Dugout type

(3) Polythene lined dugout type

(4) Cement concrete lined embankment type

54. Which one of the following options is not a geomorphological characteristic of a watershed?

(1) Total area of watershed

(2) Circulatory ratio

(3) Form factor

(4) Compaction factor

55. Triangular V-notch (90⁰ triangular weir) is a simple flow measuring instrument used for evaluation of watershed development programme.

Which is the discharge formula for this instrument?

(1) Q = 0.0138 H^3/2

(2) Q = 0.0184 H^3/2

(3) Q = 0.0138 LH^3/2

(4) Q = 0.0138 H^5/2

56. For land use planning, land capability classification maps are prepared. Which type of land capability class the area demarked with green colour represent?

(1) Class I

(2) Class II

(3) Class VI

(4) Class VIII

57. The surface of a channel which is in contact with water is called

(1) Hydraulic radius

(2) Wetted perimeter

(3) Wetted area

(4) None of the above

58. The drainage density of any catchment/watershed varies inversely with the

(1) Area of the basin

(2) Length of the basin

(3) Width of the basin

(4) Average depth of the basin

59. The type of flow in which the fluid characteristics like velocity, pressure, density, etc. at a point do not change with time, is called

(1) Steady flow

(2) Unsteady flow

(3) Uniform flow

(4) Non-uniform flow

60. q = k_dH^x

Where

q = emitter flow rate in l ph

H = working pressure head at emitter, m

k = discharge coefficient

x = emitter discharge exponent

In this equation, the lower value of ‘x’ denotes

(1) The discharge will be less affected by variations in pressure

(2) The discharge will be more affected by variations in pressure

(3) There will not be any influence of variations in pressure on discharge

(4) None of the above

61. The typical characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump show the relationship amongst
62. Discharge
63. Total head
64. Brake horse power
65. Efficiency

Answer Option:

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(2) a, b and d

(4) a, b, c and d

62. A canal aligned at right angles to the contours is a

(1) Watershed canal

(2) Contour canal

(3) Side slope carial

(4) Distributary canal

63. The criteria for judging the performance of outlets or modules are
64. Flexibility
65. Proportionality
66. sensitivity
67. Uniformity
68. Setting

Answer options:

(1) a, b, c and d only

(2) a, b, c and e only

(3) a, b, d and e only

(4) b, c, d and e only

64. The bedding system of surface drainage is mostly used for
65. Flat soils
66. Steep slopy soils
67. Poorly drained soils with low permeability
68. Sandy soils with high permeability

Answer options:

(1) a and b only

(2) c and d only

(3) a and c only

(4) b and d only

65. Cover material is applied to pipe drains
66. to facilitate water flow into the drain.
67. to prevent the entry of soil particles into the drain.

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) None of the above

66. A 36 hectare catchment area having a drainage coefficient of 2.40 cm, will yield a discharge of

(1) 100 lit/sec

(2) 10 lit/sec

(3) 10 m³/hr

(4) 0.01 m³/sec

67. Which one of the following formulae is used to design drain spacing under unsteady state condition?

(1) Dupit-Forchheimer

(2) Ernst

(3) Hooghoudt

(4) Glover-Dumm

68. Which of the following operations requires moving large quantities of earth over considerable distances?
69. Rough grading
70. Land levelling
71. Land smoothening
72. Land planning

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b only

(4) All of the above

69. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Specific yield + Specific retention = Porosity

(2) Specific retention – Specific yield = Porosity

(3) Porosity + Specific yield = Specific retention

(4) Porosity + Specific retention = Specific yield

70. The recommended safe limits of land slope (longitudinal slope, %) for efficient irrigation for heavy clay soils is

(1) 0.05 to 0.20

(2) 0.25 to 0.65

(3) 0.65 to 1.00

(4) 0.20 to 0.40

71. High speed engines have engine speed ______ rpm.

(1) Less than 350

(2) 350- 750

(3) 750- 1000

(4) Greater than 1000

72. An engine is considered to be better, when it produces the highest crankshaft torque at

(1) Rated engine speed

(2) Maximum power

(3) Less than rated engine speed

(4) More than rated engine speed

73. The compression ratio of diesel engines are in the order of

(1) 4 to 8:1

(2) 8 to 14:1

(3) 14 to 20:1

(4) 1 to 4: 1

74. The fuel which should be used for easy starting of an engine in cold weather is

(1) Diesel

(2) Kerosene

(3) Methanol

(4) Petrol

75. The power developed by an average pair of bullocks is about

(1) 7500 watts

(2) 750 watts

(3) 75000 watts

(4) 75 watts

76. A cold spark plug has

(1) A short insulator

(3) Small threads

(2) A long insulator

(4) Big threads

77. The drawbar power output is always less than the Power Take-Off (FTO) output because of ______ in the drive train between the engine and the wheels.

(1) Drive wheel slippage

(2) Tractor rolling resistance

(3) Friction losses

(4) All of the above

76. The component parts of a single drop steering system consists of the following parts :
77. Radius rod, drag link and steering wheel
78. Drop arm, drag link and tie rod
79. Radius rod, tie rod and drop arm
80. Drag link, radius rod and drop arm

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(1) a, c and d only

(2) a only

(3) b only

(4) c only

77. A gear reduction unit between differential and drive wheels of a tractor is referred to as

(1) Final drive

(2) Gear unit

(3) Ultimate power system

(4) None of the above

78. When the tractor is taking a turn, the inner and outer wheels should

(1) Rotate at the same speed

(2) Rotate at slower and faster speeds respectively

(3) Rotate at faster and slower speeds respectively

(4) Rotate at any speed

79. Which type/s of dynamometer/s has/have to absorb energy to measure FTO power of the tractor?
80. Prony brake
81. Hydraulic
82. Electrical generator
83. Eddy current

Answer options:

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, b and d only

(4) All of the above

80. _______ are the useful devices used for levelling which are fabricated by village artisans.
81. Buck scraper
82. Float
83. Planks
84. Bund former

Answer options:

(1) a and b only

(2) a, band d

(3) a only

(4) All of the above

81. An implement that is fully supported by the tractor is

(1) Trailed implement

(2) Mounted implement

(3) Semi-mounted implement

(4) All of the above

82. To change the width of cut with a disc plough, the _______ should be changed; usually _____ is considered to be the optimum value.

(1) Disk angle, 40⁰ to 45⁰

(2) Tilt angle, 15⁰ to 25⁰

(3) Horizontal suction, 6 to 12

(4) Vertical suction, 6 to 12

83. The point at which the resultant of all horizontal and vertical forces act on implement is known as

(1) Centre of pull

(2) Centre of power

(3) Centre of resistance

(4) Centre of hitch

84. The point at which the resultant of all horizontal and vertical forces act on implement is known as

(1) Centre of pull

(2) Centre of power

(3) Centre of resistance

(4) Centre of hitch

85. Depreciation is the reduction in the value of a machine caused by

(1) Wear

(2) Weathering and accidental damage

(3) Obsolescence or any other similar reasons

(4) All of the above

86. _______ is a precision drilling machine.

(1) Seed drill

(2) Planter

(3) Transplanter

(4) Tiphan

87. In a sickle, the forged end of the blade for fixing the handle is called

(1) Ferrule

(2) Tang

(3) Frame

(4) Beam

88. The seed drill should be calibrated for _______ before actually operating in the field.

(1) Placement of seeds at correct row-to-row spacing

(2) Placement of seeds at correct seed-to-seed spacing

(3) Correct seed rate

(4) Correct seed depth

89. ________ loss is the grain lost out the rear of combine in the form of unthreshed heads.

(1) Cutter bar

(2) Threshing

(3) Separating

(4) Cleaning