Home / Question Papers / MPSC High class stenographer – English, group-B (non-gazetted) colonization exam-2012 Question Paper

MPSC High class stenographer – English, group-B (non-gazetted) colonization exam-2012 Question Paper

MPSC High class stenographer – English, group-B (non-gazetted) colonization exam-2012 Question Paper

1. Pick out the sentence with adjective clause :

(a) It is certain that he will succeed.
(b) Pearl will examine a patient.
(c) I met a man I had already known.
(d) He is the man who is honest.

Answer options :
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (c) and (d) only

2. Future generations will observe ‘Independence Day’ as a red letter day.
The underlined phrase is nearest in meaning to :

(1) an auspicious day
(2) a revolutionary day
(3) a day of revolt
(4) a day of get together

3. Match the following correctly :

(a) Break bread with (i) to remove feelings of awkwardness
(b) Break new ground (ii) to escape with a violent effort
(c) Break the ice (iii) to eat a meal with
(d) Break away (iv) to do something new

Answer options :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

4. Pick out the correct exclamatory form of the given sentence.
I was very careful.

(1) How careful I was !
(2) How I was careful !
(3) What a careful I was !
(4) How was I carefuI !

5. Which of the alternatives is not a complex sentence ?

(1) 1 went because I was invited.
(2) They always talk who never think.
(3) He trudged on, though he was tired.
(4) Listen carefuIly and take notes.

6. In the following the question choose the word which is the most appropriate to fill in the blank.

Artists must be _______ otherwise they just repeat what they see or hear.

(1) creator
(2) creative
(3) critic
(4) creativity

7. Convert the following sentence into indirect speech :
She said, “What a lovely scene it is!”

(1) She said that what a lovely scene.
(2) She said that it was a very lovely scene there.
(3) She explained that what a lovely scene it is.
(4) She exclaimed that it was a very lovely scene.

8. Pick out the error in the following sentence :
She didn’t yet see the Queen.
(a) Didn’t
(b) Yet
(c) The
(d) See

Answer options :

(1) (a) Only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

9. We must save money for a rainy day.
The underlined phrase means :

(1) rainy season
(2) a time of adversity
(3) a time of prosperity
(4) a wonderful day

10. Idenhfy the underlined clause in the following sentence.
He detests writing letters.

(1) Infinitival
(2) Gerundial
(3) Adverbial
(4) Adjectival

11.Pick out the correct verb forms to fill in the blanks in the following sentence.
When I________home, my children_______

(1) Get, will be playing
(2) Got, will be playing
(3) Get, are playing
(4) Got, are playing

12. Hunting tigers is a favourite sport in this country. Identify the type of phrase underlined.

(1) Gerundial
(2) Adjectival
(3) Infinitive
(4) Prepositional

13. Idenhfy the grammatically correct sentence :

(i) I was wishing I was a bird.
(ii) I wish I was a bird.
(iii) I wish I were a bird.
(iv) I wished I was a bird.

Answer options :
(1) Only (i) is correct
(2) Only (ii) is correct
(3) Only (iii) is correct
(4) Only (iv) is correct

14. He always quarrelled with his elder brother, they could never see eye to eye with each
other.The underlined phrase means :

(1) Face directly
(2) Look at each other
(3) agree
(4) Face to Face

15. Which part in the following sentence has an error in it ?
Will I give you the newspaper ?

(1) Give
(2) Will
(3) The
(4) None of the above

16. Idenhfy the superlative form of the following adjective.
“Tiny”

(1) Tinier
(2) Most tiny
(3) More tiny
(4) Tiniest

17. Identify the meaning of underlined words from the following :
He sowed the seeds and fed the sow.

(1) Plant, a female Pig
(2) Plant, cut
(3) Plant, watered
(4) Plant, cultivate

18. Identify the error in the given sentence.
If there is no error choose No Error.

One should do his duty well No Error

P Q R

(1) p
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) No Error

19. Identify from the following which is not the adverbial clause of condition.

(1) If taxes were lowered, unemployment would not fall.
(2) Call any time tomorrow when it’s convenient.
(3) Unless we have their full co-operation, we cannot succeed.
(4) I will be hanged if I will.

20. My mother________recently________.

Pick out the correct alternative to complete the sentence.

(1) have – come
(2) has – come
(3) has been – come
(4) is – come

21. Pick out the correct sentence out of the given alternatives.

(1) Students must either wear hats or caps.
(2) Students must wear hats or either caps.
(3) Either students must wear hats or caps.
(4) Students must wear either hats or caps.

22. Choose the correct passive voice of the following.
Chemical reaction produces fire.

(1) Fire has been produced by chemical reaction.
(2) Fire is produced by chemical reaction.
(3) Fire was produced by chemical reaction.
(4) Fire had been produced by chemical reaction.

23. Which of the following answers is an antonym of the word – “gentle”?

(1) mild
(2) aggressive
(3) soft-spoken
(4) large

24. Pick out the sentence containing an Adjective clause in it.

(1) There is no meaning in what you say.
(2) What he said was hue.
(3) The reason why I did it is obvious.
(4) No one knows who he is.

25. His father said, “What are you doing ?”
The correct transformation of the sentence in the reported speech is______.

(1) His father asked what you are doing.
(2) His father said what was he doing.
(3) His father searched what he was doing.
(4) His father asked what he was doing.

26. Pick out the correct sentence out of the alternatives.

(1) He is an ascetic in neither theory nor practice.
(2) He is an ascetic in neither theory or practice.
(3) Neither he is an ascetic in theory nor practices.
(4) He is an ascetic neither in theory nor practice.

27.Fill in the blank in the following sentence with the word in brackets with appropriate
prefix.

“This is not an_________(curable) discase,” said the doctor.

(1) incurable
(2) uncurable
(3) recurable
(4) undercurable

28. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
RECKLESS

(1) Courageous
(2) Rash
(3) Bold
(4) Daring

29 Pick out the correct sentence out of the alternatives :

(1) I would rather you can go by air
(2) I would rather you go by air
(3) I would rather you went by air
(4) 1 will rather you went by air

30. Which of the sentence pairs given below is not correctly matched ?

(a) When can their glory fade 7 (i) Their glory can never fade.
(b) Was he not a villain to do such a deed? (ii) He was a villain to do such a deed.
(c) How can man die better than facing (iii) Man can die better than facing fearful
fearful odds ? odds.
(d) What though we happen to be late ? (iv) It does not matter much though we
happen to be late.

Answer options :

(1) (a) (i)
(2) (b) (ii)
(3) (c) (iii)
(4) (d) (iv)

31. Pick out the compound sentence from the following :

(a) Speak, or you will die.
(b) He has written a letter to get money.
(c) I knvw that she is a good lady.
(d) She is ill, so she will not come.

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only

32. Identify simple sentence/s in the given sentences.

(a) His courage won him honour.
(b) The moon was bright and we could see our way.
(c) I both thanked him and rewarded him.
(d) The hour to prepare the lesson has arrived. (4) (a) and (d) only

Answer options :

(1) (a) only
(2) (b)only
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) None of the above

33.In the following question choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
word.
COMMISSIONED

(1) Started
(2) Closed
(3) Finished
(4) Terrnina ted

34. Rewrite the following sentence correctly :
Tom bought last week a new bike.

(1) Last week a new bike Tom bought.
(2) Tom last week bought a new bike.
(3) Tom bought a new bike last week.
(4) Tom bought last week a new bike.

35. Pick out the correct indirect narration of the sentence.
The teacher said to the student, “Where do you live ?”

(1) The teacher asked the student that where do you live.
(2) The teacher asked the student where he lived.
(3) The teacher asked the student where did he lived.
(4) The teacher asked the student that where he lived.
36. Which of the alternatives correctly describes the underlined part in the following
sentence ?
That you should say so surprises me.

(1) Adjective Clause
(2) Noun Clause
(3) Adverb Clause
(4) None of the above

37. What is the relative status of clauses in a compound sentence ?

(1) Equal
(2) Inequal
(3) Indifferent
(4) None of the above

38. Identify the underlined part of speech in the following sentence :
She runs very fast.

(1) adverb phrase
(3) noun phrase
(2) prepositional phrase
(4) verb phrase

39. What word means beautdul, honest and is also a bazaar ?

(1) Fare
(2) Fair
(3) Fire
(4) Fear

40. Use the correct tense form of the verb given in the bracket in the following sentence :

She noticed me______(enter) her house.

(1) to enter
(2) entering
(3) has entered
(4) is entering

41. A song always has :

(1) Music
(2) Coreograph
(3) Words
(4) Light effects

42. Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(1) 357
(2) 797
(3) 153
(4) 246

43. Shyama has cows and buffaloes. 24 buffaloes are milking at present and these constitute
three-fourths of the total number of buffaloes and the total number of buffaloes are
two-thirds of the total number of animals that she owns. How many cows Shyama
owns ?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 48
(4) 24

44. Which one is different from the rest ?

(1) QPNM
(2) EDBA
(3) MLIH
(4) VUSR

45. Identify the odd group of letters from the following :
ACEG, BDFH, CEGH, RTVX

(1) ACEG
(2) BDFH
(3) CEGH
(4) RTVX

46. Find out correct sequential number.
1,121, 441,___________? .

(1) 484
(2) 562
(3) 561
(4) 961

47. If in a certain code ‘TABLE’ is written as ‘WDEOH’ then how will ‘SANDAL’ be written
in the same code ?

(1) UDQEDO
(2) VDQGDO
(3) WDQHDO
(4) UCOECN

48. Which one of the groups of letters is different from the rest ?

(1) PRT
(2) KMO
(3) BDF
(4) CEH

49. Which one is different from the rest ?

(1) HJL
(2) PRU
(3) MOQ
(4) EGI

50. Town A is to the East of town B. Town C is to the South of town A. Town C is towards
which direction of town B ?

(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South

51. Father’s age is ‘5’ yrs. more than twice of his son’s age. Mother’s age is twice of son’s age.

Total of mother’s and father’s age is 85 yrs. Then will be the age of the son.

(1) 10 yrs.
(2) 20 yrs.
(3) 22.5 yrs.
(4) 15 yrs.

52. In one examination student gets 4 marks for right answer and loses 1 mark for wrong
answer. Maneesh solved 50 questions and scored 90 marks. Then how many questions
were wrongly answered by him ?

(1) 22
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 8

53. If one is walking towards North in the evening his or her shadow will get casted to his or her right hand side.

(1) Nwer
(2) Often
(3) Always
(4) Sometimes

54. Rearrange the given letters and form a word. Identify the category in which it fits.
TVOEIL

(1) colour
(2) fruit
(3) flower
(4) vegetable

55. If the sequence of English alphabets is written in reverse order. Which would be 6’l’letter to the left of the 5’l’ letter from right ?

(1) K
(2) L
(3) J
(4) A
56. Complete the following number series :
5, 9, 13, 17,___

(1) 21
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 27

57. Identify an odd number from the following :
17, 21, 29, 37

(1) 17
(2) 21
(3) 29
(4) 37

58. Identify the odd group of letters from the following :
AEBF, IMJN, SWTX, MQNS

(1) MQNS
(2) IMJN
(3) SWTX
(4) AEBF

59. Study the relationship between numbers given outside bracket and complete the second
set of numbers.

222 (448) 334
384 ( ?) 552

(1) 276
(2) 168
(3) 672
(4) 336

60. Which one is different from the rest ?

(1) EB
(2) OL
(3) QM
(4) UR

61. Letter is to envelop as water is to

(1) vapour
(2) drop
(3) flow
(4) glass

62. Choose the option that is antonym of the word written in capital.
AMASS

(1) store
(2) hide
(3) remove
(4) scatter

63. 82. Identify the odd group of letters from the following :
AZBY, CXDW, FUGT, HRQP

(1) AZBY
(2) HRQP
(3) CXDW
(4) FUGT

64. Which number is the seventh part of a quarter of the third part of half 840 ?

(1) 5
(2) 15
(3) 25
(4) 35

65. A person have some cows and some ducks. When he asked, how many cows you have
then he answered total number of legs of animals are 24 more than twice of their heads.
Then how many cows he has ?

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 8
(4) 15

66. Smita is younger than Geeta; Meena is older than Smita. Then what conclusion will be
hue ?

(1) Geeta and Meena are of same age.
(2) Meena is oIder than Geeta.
(3) Meena is younger than Geeta.
(4) Smita is younger than Meena and Geeta.

67. ‘PR’ is related to ‘UW’ in the same way as ‘CM’ is related to :

(1) RH
(2) IS
(3) GQ
(4) HR

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