MPSC Government Labour Officer Screening Test – 2009 Question paper

Government Labour Officer Screening Test – 2009

1. For the employment in the unorganized sector, who suggest a thirteen point action plan in August 2007?

(1) ILO

(2) NCEUS

(3) NSSO

(4) CSO

2. Out of the following alternatives, which one is not the estimate of the unemployed?

(1) Daily status approach

(2) Usual status approach

(3) Weekly status approach

(4) Monthly status approach

3. In which year was the Planning Commission set up in India?

(1) 1947

(2) 1948

(3) 1951

(4) 1950

4. ‘SHG – bank Linkage programme is a huge micro finance propramme implemented by_______.

(1) IFCI

(2) IDBI

(3) NABARD

(4) SIDBI

5. What is the purpose of the Prime Minister’s New 15 Point programme (2006)?

(1) To enhance the research activities

(2) Welfare of minorities

(3) prevent the environment degradation

(4) Increase the agricultural productivity

6. Out of the following alternative which statement is not correct?

(1) NABARD was established which statement is not correct?

(2) NABARD was established in 1982

(3) NABARD provides refinance facility.

(4) NABARD was established on the recommendation of the Narasimhan Committee.

7. For the problems relating to the retrenchment of employee the Government of India set up a fund in 1992. That fund is known as_______.

(1) Retrenchment Fund

(2) National Security Fund

(3) National Renewal Fund

(4) National Welfare Fund

8. In which year was the first Industrial Policy resolution accepted by the Government of India for the development of the Industrial Sector?

(1) 1950

(2) 1948

(3) 1952

(4) 1954

9. Which is the organization that helps in rehabilitation of sick industrial units in India?

(1) Reserve Bank of India

(2) Industrial Development Bank of India

(3) Industrial Finance Corporation Of India

(4) Board for industrial and Financial Reconstruction

12. The ‘Raman Scanners’ used at airport security checks or forensic works are based on which of the following natural phenomenon?

(1) Scattering

(2) Radioactivity

(3) Carbon-dating

(4) None of the above

 

13. The joint efforts of ISRO and Airport Authority of .India (A.A.I.) to meet the civil aviation requirements are regarding the establishment of what?

(1) A.W.S.

(2) AGROMET

(3) GAGAN

(4) None of the above

 

14. Male and female flowers of________are borne on different sporophylls of the same plant.

(1) Angiosperms

(2) Gymnosperms

(3) Spore

(4) Bryophyta

 

15. In which city Summer Olympics will organize in 2020?

(1) London

(2) Paris

(3) Tokyo

(4) New Delhi

 

16. Where was India’s first ‘e-court’ established?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Kolkata

(3) Mumbai

(4) Chennai

 

17. The message of United Nations related to ‘Perpetual Development Manifesto 2030’ includes the dream of______of ‘social justice and equality’.

(1) Nelson Mandela (Madiba)

(2) Dr. Babasaheb Arnbedkar

(3) lrorn Sharmila

(4) Antonio Guterres

 

18. Which country has made a co-operation agreement with lndia for binary taxation on 26^th January, 2016?

(1) Russia

(2) France

(3) Armenia

(4) Switzerland

 

19. On 26 May, 2017 the Prime Minister of lndia inaugurated the longest bridge in lndia is located on which of the following river?

(1) The Brahrnaputra river

(2) The Ganga river

(3) The Saraswati river

(4) The Godawari river

 

20. Select the correct option to replace the question mark in the series given below: 424, 461, 502, 545,?

(1) 592

(2) 612

(3) 572

(4) 588

 

21. What will come in place of the question marks in the following series ?

100? 011001 ? 0000110?? 01

(1) 0100

(2) 0110

(3) 0001

(4) 1001

 

22. Nanu has a novels, story collections, science fictions, poem collections and drama books. He gave following information about it.
23. Poem collections are less than novels by 11.
24. There are 5 more science fictions than drama books.

iii. There are 3 less story books than science fictions.

1. Novels and poem collections together are 57 books.
2. Story collections and poem collections together are 38 books.

How many books are there with Nanu ?

(1) 103

(2) 100

(3) 102

(4) 104

 

23. The Indian Constitution assures Indian women several rights to protect her at work place. The Articles are

(1) Articles 14 and 15 : Right to equality

(2) Article 21 : Right to Life -to live with dignity

(3) Article 19(1) (g) : Right to Practice any profession/trade/occupation/business and also right to safe environment free from harassment

(4) All above said articles are applicable

 

24.________ founded Madras Labour Union in 1918.

(1) Mrs. Annie Besant

(2) Mr. B. P. Wadia

(3) Shrimati Anusayaben

(4) None of these

 

25. For the recognition of Trade Unions, the criteria under the code of Discipline adopted in______of Indian Labour Conference.

(1) 14^th Session

(2) 16^th Session

(3) 18^th Session

(4) 18^th Session

 

26. The psychological model related to Id, Ego and Superego mainly developed by

(1) Sigmund Freud

(2) Martin Buber

(3) Jean-Paul Sartre

(4) Tolman

 

27.________ is a relatively permanent change in behavior that results from reinforced practice or experience.

(1) Perception

(2) Sensation

(3) Learning

(4) All the above

 

28. In the transactional analysis, there are different types of transactions. Among the following which one is not considered to be a type of transaction ?

(1) Complementary transactions

(2) Crossed transactions

(3) Competing transactions

(4) Ulterior transactions

 

29. Two-factor theory of motivation was proposed by

(1) Douglas McGregor

(2) Frederic Herzberg

(3) Peter Ducker

(4) David McClelland

 

30. Among the following which are the popular methods of attitude measure?

(1) Thurstone and Likert techniques

(2) Operant and trait approach

(3) Psychomotor and mechanical approach

(4) None of these

 

31. Barriers in communication that arise from the linguistic capacity of the parties involved are known as______barriers.

(1) Semantic

(2) Personal

(3) Physical

(4) None of these

 

32. The comprehensive contingency model for leadership was developed by

(1) Fred Fiedler

(2) Mitchigan

(3) Reddin

(4) Liken

 

33. In 1991, the ‘National Commission on Rural Labour’ constituted under the chairmanship of

(1) Ela Bhatt

(2) Bhootlingam

(3) G. D. H. Cole

(4) Dr. C. H. Hanumanth Rao

 

34.______ is a simple graph or chart showing the relationship between volume of output and total cost and revenue of the firm.

(1) Working capital turnover ratio

(2) Break-even analysis

(3) Cost of rising finance

(4) None of these

 

35. The most general features of the formal organization is/are
36. It is impersonal or abstract
37. Relationship between its members are designed
38. It is a part of wider system

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) only b

(2) a and b only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

 

36. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Culture is external and mechanical, while civilization is internal and organic (2) Culture and civilization are not interdependent

(3) Culture and civilization are interactive

(4) None of these

 

37. Among the following, which one is not included under psycho-sociological theories ?

(1) The Michigan studies

(2) The Pittsburg studies

(3) The Maslow’s theory

(4) The Adam Smith’s theory

 

38. According to Fair Wage Committee, the Living Wage is

(1) ensures the bare subsistence of life

(2) the lower limit of fair wage

(3) the highest level of wage

(4) the statutory minimum wage

 

39. The first convention of ILO relates to

(1) Hours of work (Industry)

(2) Minimum wages

(3) Social security

(4) Minimum age (Industry)

 

40. Who was the Chairman of Second National Commission (2002) on Labour ?

(1) P. B. Gajendra Gadkar

(2) Ravindra Varma

(3) R. Krishnan

(4) B. N. Rao

 

41. The bargaining theory of wages propounded by

(1) J. B. Clark

(2) John Davidson

(3) J. S. Mill

(4) J.M.Keynes

 

42. For regulation of industries in the desired way, the first and most comprehensive Act of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act was passed by the Parliament in the year

(1) 1948

(2) 1951

(3) 1956

(4) 1973

 

43.________ is a group administered questionnaire containing 54 items reflecting a person’s fundamental interpersonal relations, orientation and behaviour.

(1) Emulation

(2) Persuasion

(3) FIRO-B

(4) EURO

 

44. Convention No. 122 of International Labour Organization [ILO] is related to

(1) Employment Policy

(2) Collective Bargaining

(3) Labour Administration

(4) Minimum Age

 

45. Which one of the following is not the theoretical perspective concerning industrial Relationship ?

(1) Pluralist

(2) Marxian

(3) Trusteeship

(4) Subsistence

 

46. Representative Union, Qualified Union and Primary Union, these three types of Unions recognized under

(1) industrial Disputes Act

(2) MRTU and PULP Act

(3) Maharashtra industrial Relations Act

(4) industrial Employment (SO) Act

 

47. In case of bivariate population, correlation can be studied through
48. Cross tabulation
49. Charles Spearman’s coefficient of correlation
50. Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only a

(2) Only b

(3) b and c only

(4) a, b and c

 

48. In the Constitution of India, Article 41 relates to

(1) Living Wage

(2) Equality of all citizens before law

(3) Right to work

(4) Formation of new States

 

49. As per the Industrial Disputes Act, the matters concerned with Second Schedule falls within the jurisdiction of

(1) Industrial tribunal

(2) Labour court

(3) Both industrial tribunal and labour court

(4) None of these

 

50. The class intervals such as 10 – 20, 20 – 30, 30 – 40, 40 – 50 are usually stated as

(1) Exclusive type

(2) Inclusive type

(3) Frequency type

(4) All the above

 

51. The important measures of dispersion is/are
52. Range
53. Mean deviation
54. Standard deviation

(1) Only b

(2) Only a and b

(3) Only band c

(4) a, band c

 

52. The major basic social processes are
53. Co-operation
54. Conflict
55. Competition
56. Accommodation
57. Assimilation

(1) Only a and b

(2) b, d and e

(3) a, c and d

(4) All the above

 

53. In recent times, there have been rapid developments in the aims and objects of trade unions. The objectives of trade unions may be
54. Improving the wages and conditions of labour
55. Raising the status of workers
56. Extending the area of social control of the nation’s economic life and participation in that control

Which of the objectives given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

54. The lntra-Mural activity of a Trade Union refers to

(1) Make provisions for the education of the children of their members

(2) Housing schemes run by the Trade Unions outside

(3) Activities conducted by the Trade Union within the organization

(4) None of these

55. Who is known as the founder of Organized Labour Movement in lndia ?

(1) N. M. Lokhande

(2) Lokmanya Tilak

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) B. P. Wadia

56. Which organization has been engaged in collection, compilation, analysis and dissemination of labour statistics at All lndia Level on different facets of labour ?

(1) Central Bureau

(2) Labour Bureau

(3) Labour Tribunal

(4) ESlC

57. ‘Labour is not a commodity’ this fundamental principle of ILO, adopted in 1944 at the conference held in

(1) Geneva

(2) Philadelphia

(3) Turin

(4) Washington

58. Wage Fund Theory was propounded by

(1) J. S. Mill

(2) Torrena

(3) Walker

(4) Adam Smith

59. The crucial determinant of fair wages is

(1) Bargaining capacity of the union

(2) Cost push inflation union

(3) Capacity to pay of the industry

(4) Minimum food requirement

60. According to whom, ‘Social Security is an attack on five Giants – Want, Disease, Ignorance, Squalor and Idleness’ ?

(1) Sir William Beveridge

(2) Sir Robert Owen

(3) Sir Rameshwaraiya

(4) Sir Vishweshwaraiya

61. Section 26 of law relating to arbitration and conciliation in India permits the arbitral tribunal

(1) For an exparte award

(2) For assistance in taking evidence

(3) To seek the assistance of experts

(4) Commencement of proceedings

62. Read the following statements regarding settlements of Industrial Dispute by Arbitration.
63. If arbitration agreement is as per requirements of rule and form are substantially complied, it is sufficient.
64. It is absolutely necessary that arbitration agreement must be in Form-C of the Act.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Only statement A is correct

(3) Only statement B is correct

(4) Both the statements are wrong

63. Section 37 of law relating to arbitration and conciliation specifies the scope of appeal from the orders of the court and arbitral tribunal_________period of time is specified for filing an appeal.

(1) Fifteen days

(2) No

(3) Thirty days

(4) Sixty days

64. Read the following statements regarding the Unorganized Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008.
65. This Act to provide the social security and welfare of unorganized workers and other matters connected therewith
66. This Act came into force on 3oth December, 2008
67. Under Section 10(2) of the Act every eligible unorganized worker shall make an application in the prescribed form to the Social Justice Department of the Government.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A and B are correct

(3) Only B and C are correct

(4) All the above are correct

65. The punishment for violation of Employment of Children Act, 1939, is imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than______but which may extend to_______or with fine which shall not be less than Rs________but which may extend to Rs_____or with both.

(1) 3 months, 6 months, 500, 1000

(2) 6 months, one year, 500, 1000

(3) 3 months, one year, 500,2000

(4) 6 months, two years, 1000,2000

66. According to Section 48 of the Factories Act, 1948 (1), in every factory wherein more than_____ women workers are ordinarily employed there shall be provided and maintained a suitable room or rooms for the use of children, under the age of six years, of such women.

(1) Thirteen

(2) Twenty

(3) Twenty-five

(4) Thirty

67. As per Section 10 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, whose decision is final in case of disputes as to age of child ?

(1) Factory Inspector

(2) Employer (3) Medical Officer

(4) Guardian of Child

68. For contravention of any provision of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 or the Rules, Penalty is imprisonment upto______or with fine upto Rs.______ or with both.

(1) 3 months, 500

(2) 6 months, 1000

(3) 6 months, 500

(4) 3 months, 1000

 

69. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of lndia ruled that employing workers at wage rates below the statutory minimum wage level equivalent to forced labour and prohibited under Article 23 of the Constitution of lndia ?

(1) Kotchu Velu v. Joseph, 1987

(2) National Iron and Steel Company v. State of West Bengal, 1967

(3) Peoples’ Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of lndia, 1982

(4) None of the above

70. According to Section 2 (q) of the Beedi and Cigar Workers (conditions of employment) Act, 1966, “Young person” means a person who has completed_______years of age but has not completed_______years of age.

(1) 12, 16

(2) 16, 21

(3) 14, 18

(4) 18, 21

71. According to_______of the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 if personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation in accordance with the provisions of_____.

(1) Section 3(1), Chapter III

(2) Section 4(2), Chapter II

(3) Section 3(1), Chapter II

(4) Section 3(2), Chapter III

72. Find odd man out regarding Social Security Schemes for the unorganised workers under Section 2(i) and Section 3 of the Unorganised Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008.

(1) lndira Gandhi National Old Age pension Scheme

(2) Aam Admi Bima Yojana (3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(4) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

73. Sections__________of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 deals with the penalties for the acts punishable under the Act.

(1) 24 to 30

(2) 26 to 31

(3) 25 to 30

(4) 28 to 32

 

74.Find odd man out regarding categories of unorganized labour.

(1) Labour employed in industry

(2) Beedi and Cigar workers

(3) Tribal labour

(4) Sweepers and scavengers

 

75. An arbitration where the procedure is either agreed upon by the parties or in the absence of an agreement, the procedure is laid down by the arbitral tribunal is known as

(1) Institutional arbitration

(2) Ad hoc arbitration

(3) Contractual arbitration

(4) Statutory arbitration

 

76. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?

(1) There must be an agreement between employer and the workmen to refer on industrial dispute to an arbitrator.

(2) The industrial dispute subsists after agreement can be settled by arbitrator.

(3) The dispute to be settled by arbitrator may be regarding working conditions, employment matters, wages etc.

(4) The solution to the dispute will be the award given by the arbitrator.

 

77. The definition of ‘Arbitration Agreement’ is mentioned in Section_________of law relating to arbitration and conciliation in India.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 6

(4) 9

 

78. As per Section 18(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the following statement IS wrong ?

(1) This gives provision regarding, how to settle industrial dispute.

(2) The Arbitration Award is binding on a11 the parties to the dispute.

(3) The employer and his heirs, successors or assigns are bound by Arbitral Award.

(4) The settlement of dispute is binding on all persons of establishment relates to dispute on the date of disputes and all persons who subsequently become employed in that establishment or part of it.

 

79. The person appointed as Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission, as per Section 6 of the Protection of Human Rights Act. 1993 shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of_______years, whichever is earlier.

(1) Seventy

(2) Sixty five

(3) Sixty

(4) Seventy five

 

80. In which of the following case, human rights of transgender community are recognized ?
81. Burkha Dutt Vs. Union of lndia
82. Shabnum Bano Vs. Union of lndia
83. National Legal Services Authority Vs. Union of lndia
84. Maharashtra Legal Services Authority Vs. Union of lndia

(1) a and b

(2) b only

(3) c only

(4) All of the above

 

81. As per Section 19 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, appoint such persons as it thinks fit to be__________for the purpose of this Act and define the local limits within which they shall exercise their functions.

(1) Contractor

(2) Labour Judge

(3) Inspector

(4) Workshop incharge

 

82. Which Section of Minimum Wages Act, 1948, require maintenance of registers and records ?

(1) Sec. 15

(2) Sec. 16

(3) Sec. 17

(4) Sec. 18

 

83. Under which Section of Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Central Government can give direction ?

(1) Sec. 27

(2) Sec. 28

(3) Sec. 29

(4) Sec. 30

 

84. Which Section made provision for appointment of special public prosecutor under Protection of Human Rights Act ?

(1) Sec. 31

(2) Sec. 32

(3) Sec. 33

(4) Sec. 34

 

85. As per Section 22 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the employer pays his employee less than the minimum rates of wages fixed for that employee’s class of work, he shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to______or with fine upto_____ or both.

 

(1) Twenty days ; Rs. 200/-

(2) Three months ; Rs. 200/-

(3) Six months ; Rs. 500/-

(4) One year ; Rs. 1,000/-

 

86. For the purpose of co-ordination of work and advising the appropriate Government in the matter of fixing and revising minimum rates of wages, which body is appointed by the Government ?
87. Advisory Board
88. Advisory Council
89. Advisory Committee
90. Advisory Commission

(1) b and c only

(2) b and d only

(3) a only

(4) c only

 

87. Under Human Rights Act, which Section deals with constitution of State Human Rights Commission ?
88. Sec. 20
89. Sec. 21
90. Sec. 22
91. Sec. 23

(1) a and c only

(2) a and d only

(3) b only

(4) c only

 

88. As per Section 39 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, every member of the Commission, State Commission and every Officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State Commission to exercise functions under this Act shall be deemed to be a

(1) Member of Parliament

(2) Member of Legislative Assembly

(3) Status of Union Minister

(4) Public Servant

 

89. Where the information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within______hours of the receipt of the request under Section 7 of the Right to information Act, 2005.

(1) Seventy two

(2) Forty eight

(3) Ninety six

(4) One hundred

 

90. Under Right to information Act, “Public Authority” is explained in Sec.
91. 2(a)
92. 2(c)
93. 2(h)
94. 2(k)

(1) a and d only

(2) a and b only

(3) c only

(4) d only

 

91. As per Section 15 of the Right to information Act, 2005, the State Chief information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on recommendation of a Committee consisting of Chief Minister as Chairperson and___________in the Legislative Assembly as one of the member.

(1) Leader of opposition

(2) Leader of ruling party

(3) Speaker

(4) Deputy Speaker