MPSC Dy Director Vocational Education and Training cum Appre Advisor[Senior],Gr-A-Technical-Screening Test Question Paper 2016

MPSC Dy Director Vocational Education and Training cum Appre Advisor [Senior], Gr-A-Technical-Screening Test 2016

1. The NSDC, a set up as Public – Private Partnership Company is mandated by :
(1) Training of semi skilled workers in different skill sectors in India.
(2) Catalysing the skills landscape in India.
(3) Recognising and affiliating vocational education universities, colleges, schools in
India.
(4) Liaisoning with International Vocational Training providers for skill development
in India.

2. The Chairman of Education Commission (1964-66) of India was :
(1) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(2) Prof. Nurul Hassan
(3) Dr. D.S. Kothari
(4) Mr. J.F. McDougall

3. The apex body for policy planning and coordination of vocational education at national level is :
(1) MHRD
(2) JCVE
(3) NCERT
(4) PSSCIVE

4. Below are given an Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Vocational Education alleviates poverty.
Reason (R) : Poverty is because of vocational education.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

5. The vocaticjnal education and training system in the country is viewed as :

(a) A tool for achieving national economic and social objective.
(b) Encoi~ragmg regional development.
(c) Supp~~rting industrial sector.
(d) Expanding export and attracting foreign investment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

6. Prevocational education of CBSE is offered to :

(1) Class 6th, Fh, sth students
(2) Class 9th and loth students
(3) School dropouts
(4) Class I to V students

7. What is the objective of starting NCVT type of education in our country ?

(1) To impart general type of education so as to promote employment.
(2) To irnpart skill based education so as to satisfy need of industry of trained
manpower which can be used in manufacture in industry.
(3) To create supervisory level manpower.
(4) To es’tablish vocational or technical education system in India.

8. Generic Vc~cational Courses at the higher secondary level have been provided by :

(1) NPE – 1968
(2) NPE – 1986
(3) Koth ari Commission
(4) None of the above

9. Which are the various systems of vocational education in India ?

(1) Arts, Science, Commerce Colleges.
(2) Engineering, Pharmacy, Polytechnic Colleges.
(3) Industrial training institutes, Vocationalisation of school education.
(4) Informal education in schools.

10. 10 + 2 +3 pattern recommended by the Education Commission was accepted mainly for :

(1) preparing students for college education.
(2) preparing large school leavers for different vocations.
(3) preparing students for engineering and medical education.
(4) distinct stream of general education.

11. State Skill Mission is headed by :

(1) CEO, Maharashtra Skill Development Society
(2) Chief Secretary
(3) Chief Minister
(4) Department Minister

12. The Ministry of Human Resources Development GoI, developed the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) to .introduce vocational courses from class :

(1) 8th onwards
(2) 9th onwards
(3) loth onwards
(4) llth onwards

13. Upgradation of ITIs under Public private Partnership was introduced in the state during :

(1) 2005-2006
(2) 2006-2007
(3) 2007-2008
(4) 2009-2010

14. To get financial assistance under educated unemployed scheme for starting self employment venture the minimum qualification is :

(1) The candidate should be a graduate.
(2) The candidate should be at least 7th pass.
(3) The candidate should be 12th pass.
(4) None of the above.

15. Artisan sE:ill assessment and certification under ‘RPL’ was introduced in the state for the first time, under the scheme :

(1) Skill. Development Initiatives (SDI), GoI.
(2) NSKK, sectorial skill councils.
(3) Artisan to Technocrat
(4) Lokseva Kendra

16. Following institutes carry out training of Instructors of ITIs/ITCs :

(1) IITs
(2) NITTTRs
(3) ATIs
(4) NITS

17. An apex organisation for R and D in Vocational Training in India :

(1) ATI
(2) NIMI
(3) CSTARI
(4) NCVT

18. Following is not a method of forecasting demand of human resources :

(1) Judgement methods
(2) Trertd analysis
(3) Matlhematical and Computer modelling
(4) Prepring manpower inventory of existing manpower

19.The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is a/an :
(1) Autonomous body
(2) Statutory body
(3) Affiliating body
(4) Administrative department

20. The main objective of Vocational Survey is :

(1) To assess educational facilities.
(2) To itlentdy the problem of youth unemployment.
(3) To explore the vocational areas and their employment potential.
(4) To collect historical data for manpower planning.

21. The PSS Central Institute of Vocational Education (PSSCIVE) is located at :

(1) New Delhi
(2) Mumbai
(3) Chandigarh
(4) Bhopal

22. The function of ‘NCERT’ is :

(1) To develop curriculum and study material for centrally controlled education
institutes.
(2) To establish I.T.I. and I.T.C.
(3) To help H.R.D. ministry of Go1 in education planning.
(4) To develop curriculum for vocational education.

23. One of the objectives of National University of Educational Planning and Administration, New Delhi is to :

(1) Accreditate Higher Education Management and Planning Institute
(2) Provide academic and professional guidance to agencies, institutes and personnel
engaged in educational Planning and Administration
(3) Plan for coordinated development of primary, secondary and higher education in
India
(4) Assist Government of India for funding of higher education ihstitutes

24. The University in India, which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is :

(1) Annamalai University
(2) Jamia Millia Islamia
(3) Indira Gandhi National Open University
(4) Usmania Open University

25. A nodal agency for achieving goals of universalisation of elementary education is :
(1) NUEPA
(2) NCERT
(3) CIET
(4) NIEPA

26. ‘Brainstorming’ as a technique is best used by the management experts for :

(1) Work distribution at shop floor
(2) Generating alternatives for problem solving
(3) Promotion of Research and Development
(4) Training shop floor employees

27. Which of the following is the first step in the Problem Solving Technique ?

(1) Collect and Analyse data
(2) Identdy and Analyse the Problem
(3) Arrive at plausible solutions
(4) Validate multiple solutions

28. In leadership trait theory, what is a trait ?

(1) A list of things that make leaders different to everyone else.
(2) A list of key things, a leader must do tolbe great.
(3) A list of key characteristics that make a leader great.
(4) None of the above.

29. What do yc~u understand by planning perspective on implementation ?
(1) To estimate finance and manpower required.
(2) To foresee the requirement of skilled manpower and plan the centres of training
accortlingly .
(3) Survey of area for manpower requirement.
(4) Straight line process.

30. A major limitation of Gantt Chart in project management is that they do not indicate :
(1) All activities
(2) Activity times
(3) Activ:ity duration
(4) Precedence Relationships

31. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle-time reduction and concurrent operations ?

(1) A timeline
(2) A Pareto diagram
(3) An X & R chart
(4) A PERT chart

32. Does internal and external environment affect working of an institute ?

(1) It does not show any effect.
(2) It affects the working of Institute and safety of the trainees and performance.
(3) Proper behavioural science should be imbibed in trainees during training.
(4) Indicator of key performance areas.

33. What do you understand by CPM Technique ?

(1) Programme evaluation and Review technique.
(2) It is an activity oriented technique which marks critical activities (events).
(3) It is a management tool to forecast duration required for completing a project.
(4) All the above.

34. SWOT analysis is an assessment of :

(1) Strategic planning
(2) Internal environment
(3) External environment
(4) Internal and External environment

35. What do you understand by human resource planning ?

(1) The students admitted to various trades in I.T.I.
(2) The individuals who make up the work force in the Institute (Based on planned
capacity and Trades)
(3) Recruitment of persons based on jobs and services required in an organization.
(4) All the above.

36. The Vocatior~al (Technician) Apprentice Scheme is implemented by :

(1) Apprenticeship Advisor at DVET.
(2) Director General of Employment and Training MOI.
(3) Board (of Apprenticeship training H.R.D. Minister.
(4) Director vocational education.

37. Advanced vocational training system is established in our state under Director of vocational training to :

(1) impart degree in vocational subjects
(2) up grade skill of semiskilled workers and supervisors working in Industry
(3) impart theoretical education to degree holders.
(4) train the Vocational Instructors.

38. Competency based vocational course at +2 stage is developed and started during 1988-89 :

(1) To provide national skill qualification framework.
(2) As an alternative to technical diploma course.
(3) To meet the need of Vocationally Trained People needed in organised and
unorganised sector.
(4) Prepai-ing the student for college education.

39. According to Restructured + 2 HSC vocational courses in a tedmical Group, no. of courses are :

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

40. Certificate of Proficiency is awarded in the case of :

(1) Trade apprenticeship
(2) Fresh2r apprenticeship
(3) Technician (vocational) apprenticeship
(4) All the above

41. In Maharashtra State prevocational courses are started to :

(1) develop interest in students for vocational subjects at pre-S.S.C. level.
(2) as alternative facility in line with I.T.I. courses (CTS).
(3) impart employable skill to degree holders in general stream.
(4) develop village technicians.

42. In Group training system pre-scribed under Apprenticeship Act a CTS training is given at :

(1) ITIorITC
(2) Individual Industry.
(3) Cluster of industries by rotating the trainee amongst Group of Industries.
(4) Basic Training Centres.

43. How many times has the apprenticeship Act 1961, been Amended so far ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

44. According to NSQF, + 2 HSC (Bifocal) courses are aligned with :
(1) Level I and II
(2) Level II and III
(3) Level III and IV
(4) Level V and VI

45. The following types of leave are granted to apprentices.

(a) Casual leave
(b) Medical leave
(c) Extraordinary leave
(d) Earned leave

Answer Options :
(1) (a) (b) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (d) only

46. Under the Appreniiceship Training Scheme, in case of central public sector undertaking and Union Territories, the seats reserved for OBCs are :

(1) 15%
(2) 19%
(3) 27%
(4) No reservation

47. Admission to +2 13 focal stream in Government Technical high schools centres is done through :

(1) Head master
(2) Dy Director School Education
(3) Jt. Director Vocational Education and Training
(4) Collaboration schools

48. Who is not eligble for engagement under Apprenticeship Training ?

(1) Candidate from outside the state
(2) Less than 14 .fears of age
(3) One who does not satisfy the prescribed standard of fitness
(4) Whose guardian has entered into a contract with employer (In case minor)

49. For Apprenticeship Training of technicians (vocational) a candidate is to apply to :

(1) Regional Director of Apprenticeship Training.
(2) Regional Director, Board of Apprenticeship Training.
(3) State Directo~ of Apprenticeship Training.
(4) All the above.

50. How many seats are reserved for the scheduled tribes in the Government Ashram School ITIs in the state ?

(1) 100%
(2) 80%
(3) 75%
(4) 50%

51. Recruitment Rules for State Government Departments are approved by :

(1) Governor
(2) General Administrative Department
(3) Employer Administrative Department
(4) Maharashtra Public Service Commission

52. Which of the following processes is used for deciding the best job match and the person’s talent ?

(1) Recruitment
(2) Selection
(3) Placement
(4) Socialization

53. Which of the following is not a true statement so far as benefits of orientation programme are concerned ?

(1) It cuts down recruitment cost
(2) It can be a motivating factor for new employees
(3) It can increase retrenchment
(4) It can enhance satisfaction of new employees

54. Orientation has a direct impact on future :

(1) Wage rate and incentive scheme
(2) Safety and proper use of tools and equipment
(3) Performance, productivity and job satisfaction
(4) Disciplinary rules and service benefits

55. The new employees can be trained through :

(a) . Direct Employee’s Training
(b) Optimizing employee’s strengths
(c) Use of e-learning program to train employees
(d) Giving new employees a task, in place of training
(e) Encouraging employees to share their expertize
(f) Giving departmental projects directly

Answer Options :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a),(b), (c),(d) and (c)

56. Linkage between institution and industry should be viewed as a total involvement in respect of :

(a) Utilization of facilities in Industries.
(b) Utilization of Technicians for Skill Training.
(c) Evalilation and placement of students.
(d) Students placed for revenue generation activities.

Answer Options :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Only (d) is correct

57. Key performance indicators for training institute are listed as :

(a) Average – monthly income of the employed/self employed students.
(b) Average – monthly training hour per faculty.
(c) Average – weekly hours per students spent on ‘Practicals’ in Industry
(d) Average – percentage of students placed in Industry.

Answer Options :
(1) (a) and (d) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), 03) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

58. Find out the incorrect statement for Trade Apprentices Training Scheme :

(1) Trairing programme is developed by joint consultation of apprenticeship advisor
and c2stabEishment concerned.
(2) Prescription of number of apprentices to be engaged at establishment level instead
of trade – wise.
(3) Estak~lishment can engage apprentices in optional trade which are not designated.
(4) Estakllishment have been permitted to outsource basic – Training in an institute of
their choice.
59, For development of skill, which of the following methods is not used ?
(a) Demonstration Method
(b) Discussion Method
(c) Lecture-cum-demonstration Method
(d) Problem solving Method

Answer Options :

(1) MY (a), (b)
(2) MY (b)
(3) MY (a), (c), (d)
(4) All of the above

60. What is not an Indicator of External Efficiency of Training Institute ?
(1) Student graduation rate
(2) Labour market success of graduates
(3) Satisfaction of graduates with the trade required
(4) Satisfaction of employers with the skills of graduates

61. While designing the curriculum for competency based education for vocational courses, which of the following sequences is followed ?

(a) Formulation of objective for particular vocational course on the basis of task analysis.
(b) Enlist the job opportunities, both self and wage available in job market.
(c) Out lining the study and examination scheme and develop syllabi.
(d) Identification of vocational competencies, job analysis, knowledge and skill and
personality traits required.

Answer Options :

(1) (a),(b),(d),(c)
(2) (b),(a),(c),(d)
(3) (b),(d),(a),(c)
(4) (c),(a),(b),(d)

62. The phrase ‘Transfer of Training’ refers to :

(1) moving training schedules around to accommodate other concerns of the
organisation
(2) sharing training material with colleagues
(3) implement in:^ newly acquired knowledge and skills back in the organisation
(4) sharing training experiences with colleagues and trainers

63. The training programme evaluation which provides the scope for improvement during the programme itself is known as :

(1) Comprehensive Evaluation
(2) Impact Evaluation
(3) Formative Evaluation
(4) Summative Evaluation

64. National Occupation Standards are developed by :

(1) NSDC
(2) SSCS
(3) NCVT
(4) PSSCIVE

65. What is the role of Industry Partner under upgradation of ITIs through PPP model ?

(1) To provide qualified instructors and staff
(2) To regulate Ihe admission and fee processes
(3) To improve NCVT curriculum
(4) To customisr?d training or potential manpower

66. Which of the following statements about media for instruction is absolutely hue ?

(1) Single media is suitable for all trainees
(2) Media works as a substitute for trainer
(3) Media raises the attention level of the trainees
(4) Media does not require equipments for their use and presentation

67. Safety in skill development training mainly refers to :
(1) Safety of using tools and machines during training
(2) Safety of work place/training site
(3) Safety from health hazards in and around training site
(4) All the above

68. What is the role of CII in Vocational Training ?
(1) Provide Consultancy/Advisory Service
(2) Industry partner under upgradation of ITIs
(3) To monitor the progress of the scheme through National Steering Committee
(4) Provide conducive administrative atmosphere to the process of partnership

69. ‘Carefully preparing a training manual so that ideas are built on drivious ideas’ – which training principle is illustrated ?
(a) Stimulus : Meaningful organization of material
(b) Response : Practice and reinforcement
(c) Feedback : Immediate knowledge of results I i
(d) Transfer of Training – Sequencing the events

Answer Options :

(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

70. Immediately after completion of the training, feedback of the trainees is Ltaken in written form. This method of evaluating a training programme is called :

(1) Evaluating results
(2) Evaluating reactions and learning
(3) Evaluating on the job behaviour
(4) Evaluating business results

71. What are the skill evaluation techniques ?

(1) Method, Approach, Skill and Time taken to complete the job.
(2) Work accuracy, Skill and Time taken.
(3) Work accuracy, Finishing, Time taken for a job.
(4) Completeness and Speed.

72. The basic purpose of Performance Appraisal is to :

(1) Hire Employees
(2) Fire Employees
(3) Motivate Employees
(4) Counsel Employees

73. When the ratings are collected from supervisors, customers and peers, it is called ?

(1) 180″ Feedback
(2) 320″ Feedback
(3) 360″ Feedback
(4) 380″ Feedback

74. Standard Bench-marking is a :
(1) Best Practice Standards
(2) Calibration of real performance
(3) Standard per.formance
(4) Comparison, measurement to promote the best

75. Performance of Trainees for productivity is assessed on the basis of :
(1) accuracy
(2) completeness
(3) speed
(4) accuracy and speed

76. The steps of classroom teaching are :

(1) Immitation — Manipulation — Precision — Articulation
(2) Preparation — Presentation — Application — Testing
(3) Fixing goal — Deciding content — Sequencing — Teaching stratepes
(4) Create interest — Develop concept — Promote understanding — Crystalize thought

77. IS0 certification of ITIs is done under :

(1) IsO – 9000
(2) ISO – 9002
(3) ISO – 9003
(4) ISO – 29990

78. ISO 9001, 9002 and 9003 are applicable to :

(1) Contractual situation
(2) Non-contractual situation
(3) Internal management
(4) Quality system guidelines

79. What does the term ‘Kaizen’ mean when applied to Quality ?

(1) Continuous Improvement in Quality
(2) Quality is everyone’s job
(3) Maintenance of steady flow
(4) Mutual dependence

80. Machine Maintenance Record is maintained in :

(1) Dead Stock Register
(2) Inventory book
(3) History sheet
(4) Bin-card

81. Which of the following in ABC Analysis is an ‘A item’ ?

(1) 70% of the total inventory cost is against 10% of the total items.
(2) 10% of the total inventory cost is against 10% of the total items.
(3) 70% of the total inventory cost is against 70% of the total items.
(4) 10% of the total inventory cost is against 70% of the total items.

82. Which of the following is the correct answer ?

(1) Reorder level = Average consumption during total lead time – safety stock
(2) Reorder level = Total stock
(3) Reorder level = Obsolete stock
(4) Reorder level = Average consumption during total lead time + safety stock

83. What do you mean by buffer stock in managing of stores ?

(1) Reorder levcll stock
(2) Reserve or rnargin of safety stock to be used in case of emergency
(3) Lead or procurement time
(4) Average stock to place a order

84. Instructor keeps the records of Tools and Equipments under his change in :

(1) Dead Stock Register
(2) Consumable Register
(3) Tool Gibs Rlegister
(4) Inventory Register

85. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is meaningful for which of the following ?
(1) Static parts (2) Dynamic parts
(3) Fast moving parts
(4) Slow moving parts

86. In preparing zero base budget for training programme, which of the following is not considered ?

(1) Wasteful expenditure
(2) Inefficienci12s of previous programmes
(3) Non utiliza.tion of scarce resources
(4) Alternative means of funding

87. Annual Financial Statement is known as

(1) Green Boolc
(2) White Book
(3) Blue Book
(4) Red Book

88. Performance budget can be defined as : .

(1) Management tool, linked to budget forming process.
(2) Achievement of physical and financial target only.
(3) Appropriation of amount under major head.
(4) Functions, programmes and activities with financial and physical aspects interlinked.

89. Pre-budget exercise, aimed to ensuring a practical and realistic allocation of resources is called______.

(1) Annual planning of the state
(2) Civic budget estimate
(3) Zero base budgeting
(4) Performance budget

90. Non-plan expenditure of a technical institute includes :

(1) Development expenditure
(2) Non-development expenditure
(3) Development and non-development expenditure
(4) Grant-in-aid

91. Fund of the state government which is not subjected to the Vote of Assembly is known as :

(1) Voted expenditure
(2) Charged expenditure
(3) Capital expenditure
(4) All the above

92. For implementing training calendar, training institutes prepare :
(1) Capital budget
(2) Operating budget
(3) Fixed budget
(4) Flexible budget

93. Expenditure incurred by Government for Procurement of Equipment is termed as :

(1) Revenue expenditure
(2) Capital expenditure
(3) Expenditure under debt head
(4) Receipts under debt head

94. In which of the f~dlowing terms budget is prepared ?

(1) Quantitative and statistical
(2) Quantitative and quality
(3) Quantity and time
(4) Quantity, quality and ratio

95. DPDCs are respc~nsible for :

(1) Formulating a part of state plan related to their districts.
(2) Formulating district plans only.
(3) Formulating district and backlog plan.
(4) Monitoring implementation of the district level scheme only

96. The Environment (Protection) Act was passed in

(1) 1984
(2) 1985
(3) 1986
(4) 1987

97. Health for all can succeed only when :

(1) There is a mini-hospital in every village.
(2) Government bears medical expenses of one and all.
(3) Everyone becomes conscious of one’s health.
(4) Life expectancy can reach 75 years.

98. Disaster Control Management Plan is :

(1) an action plan and emergency organisation to control the disaster.
(2) an action required to be carried out at the time of emergency.
(3) a safety pcllicy documents issued by management.
(4) team building in advance according to activities.

99. Which is not the key environmental issue of Industrial Training Institute ?

(1) Beautification of campus.
(2) Poor site planning and designing.
(3) Lack of proper maintenance of Building and associated services.
(4) Improper resources consumption.

100. MOOC stands for :

(1) More Objective Open Courseware
(2) Master of Organic Chemistry
(3) Massive Object Oriented Courses
(4) Massive Open Online Courses