MPSC Drugs Inspector,Food and Drugs Administration Gr-B Question paper 2016

 Drugs Inspector,Food and Drugs Administration Gr-B[Screening Test

1. HIV/AIDS is diagnosed by some specific tests. Identify which among the following test/s is/are used?

(1) ELISA

(2) DNA-PCR by amplification

(3) Western bolt

(4) All the above

2. What is the antidote for Lead poisoning?

(1) Dimercaptosuccinic acid

(2) Physostigmine

(3) Fomepizole

(4) Atropine

3. Which of the following drugs is not a Tocolytic?

(1) Ritoderine

(2) Magnesium sulfate

(3) Nifedipire

(4) Ergotamine

4. Which of the following NSAIDs is not proionic acid derivative?

(1) Ibuprofen

(2) Naproxen

(3) Oxaprozin

(4) Piroxicam

5. Which anticoagulant is produced by mast cells and basophils?

(1) Heparin

(2) Prostaglandin

(3) Histidine

(4) Vitamin K

6. Under which rule of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945, licences for blood banks are issued?

(1) 122 G

(2) 122 A

(3) 160 B

(4) 150 B

7. Basophils originate in:

(1) Megakaryoblast

(2) Monoblast

(3) Megakaryocyte

(4) Myeloblast

8. Which of the following is an ester and short-acting Local anaesthetic?

(1) Tetracaine

(2) Dibucaine

(3) Lidocaine

(4) Procaine

9. Antifungal Antibiotic Amphoterician B is obtained from:

(1) Streptomyces pimprina

(2) Penicillum griseofulvin

(3) Streptomyces nodosus

(4) Both (1) and (3)

10. Which of the following drugs is not an enzyme-inducer?

(1) Phenobarbitone

(2) Phenytoin

(3) Rifampin

(4) Cimetidine

11. One of the following drugs is most widely used as local anaesthetic for infiltration, regional never block, epidural and subarachnoid anaesthesia. It is also commonly used for topical anaesthesia:

(1) Cocaine hydrochloride

(2) Procaine hydrochloride

(3) Lidocaine hydrochloride

(4) Mepivacaine hydrochloride

12. Which of the following antiretroviral drugs belongs to Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) category?

(1) Nevirapine

(2) Indinavir

(3) Ritonavir

(4) Stavudine

13. Which of the following drugs induces delta-amino- levulinic-acid (ALA)- synthetase?

(1) Phenobarbitone

(2) Ethanol

(3) Paraldehyde

(4) Diazepam

14. Which of the following drugs is not a component of fixed-dose combination used in RNTCP for Tuberculosis?

(1) Rifampicin

(2) Moxifloxacin

(3) Isoniazid

(4) Ethambutol

15. Micro-organism responsible for sexually transmitted diseases which causes an eye infection that is the primary cause of blindness worldwide:

(1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(2) Treponema pallidum

(3) Chlamydia trachomatis

(4) Candida albicans

16. On which chromosome, the genes for three chains of fibrinogen are found?

(1) Chromosome 1

(2) Chromosome 3

(3) Chromosome 4

(4) Chromosome 6

17. Whole human blood is a mixture of blood and nticoagulant solution and contains not less than:

(1) 8.7% w/v of haemoglobin

(2) 2.3% w/v of haemoglobin

(3) 9.07% w/v of haemoglobin

(4) 9.7% w/v of haemoglobin

18. The relative nephrotoxicity among the Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is one of the following:

(1) Indomethacin < Fenoprofen < Ibuprofen

(2) Ibuprofen > Fenoprofen > Indomethacin

(3) Indomethacin > Fenoprofen < Ibuprofen

(4) Fenoprofen > Ibuprofen > Indomethacin

19. Which of the following antifungal drugs is used only topically?

(1) Griseofulvin

(2) Clotrimazole

(3) Amphotericin – B

(4) Nystatin

20. What is accepted daily intake in mg/kg/day of Aldrin?

(1) 0.005

(2) 0.008

(3) 0.0001

(4) 0.0005

21. Which of the following is Non-opioids Antitussive?

(1) Codeine

(2) Ethylmorphine

(3) Dextromethorphan

(4) Pholcodine

22. Which one of the following drugs is uterine relaxant?

(1) Oxytocin

(2) Ergonovine

(3) Ritopdrine

(4) Quinine

23. The selective angiotensin II receptor blocker used as antihypertensive drug is one of the following:

(1) Captopril

(2) Verapamil HCI

(3) Amiloride

(4) Losartan

24. What is the consequence of interaction between 6-Mercaptopurine and Allopurinol?

(1) Dose of 6- Mercaptopurine is reduced

(2) No effect

(3) Dose of 6- Mercaptopurine is increased

(4) Dose of Allopurinol is increased

25. For donors experiencing plasmapheresis, Aspirin should not have been taken______ day(s) prior to donation.

(1) One

(2) Three

(3) Five

(4) Seven

26. Which of the following oral contraceptive preparations contains an estrogen and a progestin in fixed doses for all the days of the treatment cycle?

(1) Minipill

(2) Emergency pill

(3) Combined pill

(4) Phased pill

27. During and after an attack of infectious mononucleosis an agglutinin for sheep red blood cells appears in the serum and is of diagnostic significance. This agglutinin is demonstrated in the________.

(1) Rose- Waaler test

(2) differential sheep cell agglutination test

(3) Paul-Bunnel test

(4) MG agglutination test

28. Media that enhance the growth of a particular type of bacterium and do not enhance and even may inhibit other types of organisms are called:

(1) Differential media

(2) Selective media

(3) maintenance media

(4) Assay media

29. In the laboratory diagnosis of rabies impression smears of the brain are stained by Seller’s technique to demonstrate the inclusion bodies called_________.

(1) Negri bodies

(2) Cowdry type A bodies

(3) Cowdry type B bodies

(4) Bollinger bodies

30. Lowbury and Lilly’s medium, and Willis and Hobbs’ medium are for cultivation of____________.

(1) Bordetella

(2) Clostridia

(3) Bacilli

(4) Corynebacteria

31. Alcohol in Water (60-85%) is a good disinfectant for medical instruments and laboratory sufaces. It destroys the microorganisms present there by:

(1) Slubilizing lipids and protein denaturation

(2) Disrupting cell membrane

(3) combining with – SH groups

(4) acting as strong alkylating agent

32. pH indicator/bye present in Christensen’s urea medium is________.

(1) neutral red

(2) andrade’s indicator

(3) methyl red

(4) phenol red

33. Which of the following statements are true?

(1) The LAL test reagent is obtained from a horse shoe crab.

(2) The LAL test is more sensitive than the pyrogen test.

(3) The LAL test only detects endotoxins of gram negative bacteria

(4) The LAL test can be used for radiopharmaceuticals.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (b)

34. The antimicrobial drug showing structural similarity to paraaminobenzoic acid and which is bacteriostatic is:

(1) Penicillin

(2) Rifamycin

(3) Isoniazid

(4) Sulfonamides

Which of the statements/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (d) only

35. The pyrogen test is designated to limit the risk of a febrile reaction following pareteral administration of drugs. It is intended to be used for liquid products that can be tolerated by the test________ in a dose of 10 ml. per kg. injected intravenously.

(1) rabbit

(2) white mice

(3) guinea pig

(4) Viruses

36. Collodion fileters are used for the isolation of_______.

(1) bacteria

(2) Algae

(3) Moulds

(4) Viruses

37. Diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori can be done by________.

(1) Urea breath test

(2) Copper breath test

(3) Sodium breath test

(4) Potassium breath test

38. Which of the following is used to serodiagnose syphilis?

(1) Veneral Disease Research Laboratory test

(2) Widal test

(3) Sereny test

(4) E test

39. Typical BOD values for domestic water, including sewage are approximately _______ units.

(1) 200 BOD

(2) 100 BOD
(3) 500 BOD

(4) 300 BOD

40. Consider the following statements about GST Bill:
41. It was the 122^nd Constitutional Amendment Bill.
42. It is 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act 2016.
43. Assam was the first State to ratify GST Bill. d. Bihar was the first non-NDA State to ratify GST Bill.

(1) Statements a, b and c are correct

(2) Statements b, c and d are correct (3) Statements a and c are correct

(4) Statements a, b, c and d are correct

41. In which State, the Railway Minister, Suresh Prabhu inaugurated the nation’s first 6 Green Rail corridor’?

(1) Jammu-Kashmir

(2) Jharkhand

(3) Tamilnadu

(4) Maharashtra

42. Which Park/Reserve received the ‘India Biodiversity Award-2016?

(1) Corbette National Park (U.P.)

(2) Kazirunga National Park (Assam)

(3) Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan)

(4) Pakke Tiger Reserve (Arunachal Pradesh)

43. The world’s longest and highest glass bridge opened to visitors recently in China, which is
44. 430 metre long
45. 10 metre wide
46. 300 metre above the ground
47. Allows a maximum of 8000 visitors to cross the bridge every day

(1) a, b and c are correct

(2) a, c and d are correct

(3) b, c and d are correct

(4) a, b and d are correct

44. The United Nations has issued a stamp to mark the birth centenary of who among the following Indians?

(1) M.S. Subbulakshmi

(2) Bhimsen Joshi

(3) Srinivasa Ramanujan

(4) Subramania Bharati

45. Which guided Missile Destroyership was launched in Mumbai on 17th September,2016?

(1) JDS Kongo

(2) Kunming

(3) forbin

(4) Mormugao

46. Who is appointed as the CEO of SBI Mutual Fund?

(1) Indra Nooyi

(2) Anuradha Rao

(3) Meg Whitman

(4) Mary Barra

47. Select the correct statements:
48. According to Census 2011, Literacy rate in Maharashtra is 82.91%.
49. According to Census 2011, Population density in Maharashtra is 365 per sq, km.
50. According to Census 2011, Literacy rate in Kerala is 93.91%.

(1) Statements a and b

(2) Statements b and c

(3) Statements a and c

(4) All of the above

48. Introducing a woman a person says, ‘She is the only daughter of her parents and her mother’s husband’s sister is my paternal aunt. I don’t have any brother or sister. How is the person related to that woman, if he is a male?

(1) Cousin Brother

(2) Brother

(3) Paternal uncle

(4) Maternal uncle

49. Select the correct conclusion with respect to the statement if only direct relationship is considered, “Nina’s grand-father’s son can be the grand-father of Nina’s nephew.

(1) Statement is true if this nephew is a son of Nina’s brother or sister.

(2) Statement is true if this nephew is a son of Nina’s husband’s sister.

(3) Statement is true if this nephew is a son of Nina’s husband’s brother.

(4) Statement is true if Nina’s grandfather is her mother’s father.

50. Tapi river basin is found in which of the following mountain ranges in Maharashtra?

(1) Satmala Ajantha and Harishchandra Balaghat ranges

(2) Satpuda and Satmala qiantha ranges

(3) Satpuda and Sahyadri ranges

(4) Harishchandra Balaghat and Mahadw ranges

51. Arrange the National ParkdSanctuaries from east to west in Maharashtra.

(1) Navegao, Chikhaldara, her, Devalgao-Rehkuri, Fansad

(2) Chikhaldara, Aner, Navegao, Devalgao-Rehkuri, Fansad

(3) Fansad, Devalgao-Rehkuri, Chikhaldara, Aner, Navegao

(4) her, Devalgao-Rekuri, Fansad, Navegao, Chikhaldara

52. Which of the following are irrigation projects in Yerla river valley?

(1) Vamz, Mayni, Bhakuchiwadi

(2) Vangaon, Valuz, Bhambarde

(3) Tak, Kakurde, Antri

(4) Yeliv, Shalgaon, Kardavali

53. Who established the first textile mill in Mumbai named as ‘Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company’ in 1851?

(1) Jamshedji Tata

(2) Premchand Raychand

(3) Dimhaw Petit

(4) Kavasji Dawar

54. Who is called as the ‘Leader of Economic Nationalism” because of his fundamental analysis of the financial condition of India?

(1) Justice M.G. Ranade

(2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(3) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule

(4) Dadabhiai Nauroji

55. Which festival was started by Lokmanya Bal Gaangadhar Tilak in 1895?
56. Shivjayanti
57. Ganeshotsav
58. Navratra
59. Rashtriya

(1) Only a

(2) Only b

(3) a and b

(4) c and d

56. Which is the first vernacular language newspaper published in Mumbai in Gujarati?

(1) Darpan

(2) Prabhakar

(3) Sudharak

(4) Mumbai Samachar

57. Who was given the leadership of Sangli group of Krantisingh Nana Patil’s Pratisarkar?

(1) Vasantdada Patil

(2) Yashwantrao Charan

(3) Pandurang Borate

(4) Bapu Kachare

58. Which are the features of Government of India Act, 1935?
59. Federation and Provincial autonomy
60. Dyarchy at the Centre
61. Bicameral Central Legislature
62. Distribution of Legislative powers between the Centre and the Provinces

(1) a and d

(2) a, b and d

(3) a, c and d

(4) a, b, c and d

59. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) The Constituent hsembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.

(2) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the temporary Resident of the Constituent hsembly.

(3) Jawaharlal Nehru moved ‘Objective Resolution’ on December 13, 1946.

(4) The ‘Objective Resolution’ was unanimously adopted on January 26, 1947.

60. How many sessions of the Constituent Assembly of India were held to draft the Indian Constitution?

(1) 11

(2) 16

(3) 114

(4) 165