MPSC Director-Joint Director Vocational Education and Training Gr-A Question paper 2016
1.The ITIs fall under
(1)Ministry of Rural Development
(2)Ministry of Human Resource Development
(3)Ministry of Labour and Employment
(4)Ministry of Finance
2.The ITIs major aim is to
a.Impart skills in various vocational trades.
b.Award certificate level craft training.
c.Train school dropouts between VIII to XII.
d.Integrate them into mainstream of education.
(1) b, c and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b and c
3.The scheme of Vocationalization of Secondary Education provides for diversification of educational opportunities, so as to
a. Enhance individual employability.
b. Reduce mismatch between demand and supply of skilled manpower.
c. Enrich curriculum with core science subjects.
d. Provide an alternative for those pursuing higher education.
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, c and d
4.The pass-outs of Diploma Level Institutions in Engineering and Technology play an important role in managing shop floor operations. They are specially skilled in
a. Reading and Interpreting Drawings.
b. Estimating, costing and billing.
c. Measurement and Testing.
d. Conducting relevant researches.
e. Repair and Maintenance.
(1) a, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c and e
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c and d
5.The purposes of introducing work education at secondary level are :
a. Students are able to enter world of work.
b. Emphasize the practical work to satisfy the needs of students, school and community.
c. Preparation for vocation of dropouts.
d. Find solutions to practical problems.
e. Provide jobs to school dropouts.
(1) a, b, c and d
(3) b, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c and e
(4) a, c, d and e
6.The cognitive domain objectives of work education at school level are
a. Acquaint himself with productive activities in the community.
b. Understand scientific facts and principles involved in various forms of work.
c. Develop skills for greater productive efficiency.
d. Use his creative faculties for devising innovative methods.
e. Understand his role in productive situations.
f. Develop respect for manual work.
(1) a, b, c and e
(3) c, d, e and f
(2) b, d, e and f
(4) a, b, d and e
7.’Educating rural masses about health and sanitation’ under ‘work experience activities in schools would meet the following purposes :
a. Purposeful, meaningful and manual work.
b. Developing desirable social attitudes.
c. Suited to maturity level of students.
d. Generate interest among students.
e. Easy to be organized by staff.
(1) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, d and e
(2) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b and d
8.’Students have planted the trees, installed tree guards and water them twice a week.’ It meets the following criteria of assessment of the activities under work experience :
a. Objective based
b. Comprehensive
c. Dynamic
d. Continuous
(1) a and b
(3) c and d
(2) b and c
(4) d only
9. The Skill Development Initiative (SDI) on Modular Employability Skills (MES) focuses on
a. Skill up gradation/formation.
b. Multi entry and exit.
c. Vertical and horizontal mobility.
d. Long duration courses.
e. Lifelong learning opportunities.
(1) a, b, c and e
(3) a, b, d and e
(2) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c, d and e
10. In Skill Development Initiative Scheme (SDIS), the efficiency of a training program is assessed by
a. Percentage of pass out students.
b. Impact of Training on Employability.
c. Mid-term course corrections.
d. Tracer studies and survey of employers.
(1) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(4) b, c and d
11. The skill development programme in khadi and village industries does not include
(1) Khadi (cotton, silk and wool)
(2) Village industries, artisan and supervisory courses
(3) Entrepreneurship development programme
(4) Deen Dayal Hathkargha Protsahan Yojana (DDHPY)
12. Govt. of Maharashtra initiated the scheme (2005), namely “Mangel Tyala Prashikshan” to maintain equitable access to VET for disadvantaged categories
a. SC
b. ST
c. VJNT
d. OBC
(1) a only
(3) a, b and c only
(2) a and b only
(4) a, c and d only
13. In the scheme of ‘Artisan to technocrat’, the Diploma is awarded by
(1) MSBVE
(2) MSBTE
(3) YCMOU
(4) NIOS
14. Maharashtra is the only State in the country having the following public institution at every taluka :
(1) Higher Secondary School
(2) Degree College
(3) Industrial Training Institutes
(4) Polytechnics
15. In World Bank assisted vocational training improvement project, the responsibility of “increasing enrolment of women in non-traditional trades” and “increase in trades preferred by women. in all ITIs”, lies with
(1) NPIU
(2) SPIUs
(3) ITIs
(4) SPIUs and ITIs
16. The component of language(s) : General foundation : Vocational theory and Practicals in case of +2 HSC vocational design by the State Board are in the ratio of
(1) 20 : 20 : 60
(2) 25 : 25 : 50
(3) 20: 10: 70
(4) None of the above
17. Govt. of Maharashtra established centre facilities to provide Technical Education to the Bifocal stream students in
(1) Govt. Technical Schools
(2) Pvt. Aided Jr. Colleges
(3) Pvt. Unaided Jr. Colleges
(4) All of the above
18. GOI has introduced NSQF based vocational education under the CSS of “Vocationalisation of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education” through RMSA in
( 1) Public Secondary Schools
(2) Technical Schools
(3) Pvt. Aided Schools
(4) Pvt. Unaided Schools
19. Implementation of Vocational Apprenticeship Scheme under The Apprentices (Amendment) Act, 1973 and 1986, in the State, is the responsibility of
(1) Director Vocational Education
(2) State Apprenticeship Advisor
(3) Regional Director of Apprenticeship Training
(4) Regional Director, Board of Apprenticeship Training
20. State Govt. has started innovative scheme of ‘CTS’ for the first time in the country in ‘Adivasi Ashram Schools’ of Maharashtra in
(1) 26 schools
(2) 27 schools
(3) 28 schools
(4) 30 schools
21. Under the scheme Apprenticeship Training, the entire basic training cost has to be borne by employer if he employs
(1) 100 and more employees
(2) 200 and more employees
(3) 300 and more employees
(4) 500 and more employees
22. The survey for trade apprenticeship is conducted on the basis of
a. Trade wise manpower
b. unskilled personnel
c. Number of supervisors
d.. Training facilities
(1) a only
(2) b, c and d only
(3) d only
(4) a and d only
23. Trainees under Trade Apprenticeship Act shall be entitled to
a. Casual Leave
b. Medical Leave
c. Extraordinary Leave
d. Earned Leave
(1) c only
(2) d only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b and c only
24. The curriculum of Apprenticeship Training is approved by the Central Apprenticeship Council in the following categories :
(1) Trade Apprenticeship
(2) Technician (Vocational) Apprentices
(3) Sandwich Course (Student from Diploma)
(4) Technician Apprentices
25. Guiding Principle of Institute Management Committees is
(1) Turn IT1 into profit making production centre
(2) Decentralization and accountability of user
(3) Consultancy to IT1
(4) The generation of revenues
26. In Technical and Vocational education, the role and functions of teachers is
(1) to inculcate work ethics
(2) to understand work culture
(3) an educational manager
(4) an information dispenser
27. The cognitive level ability upto comprehension level is developed by
(1) Lecture Method
(2) Demonstration Method
(3) Assignment Method
(4) Apprenticeship Method
28. Under the scheme of OJT, monitoring, evaluation and certification is the responsibility of
( 1) Vocational Teacher
(2) Teacher Co-ordinator
(3) Establishment Supervisor
(4) All of the above
29. OJT is an integral component of vocational education and training with the main objective of
(1) Understanding the practical intricacies in real situation
(2) Advantage of working with the equipments which are not available in the institute
(3) Providing training on completion of course
(4) Providing apprenticeship training
30. Which is the best method for skill development from amongst the following ?
(1) Demonstration Method
(2) Lecture-cum-demonstration Method
(3) Assignment Method
(4) Apprenticeship Method
31. Linkages with industries are mainly developed for
(1.) Financial support from industry
(2) Specialist guest lecturer from industry
(3) Support in conducting tracer study
(4) Providing OJT and absorbing in wage and self employment
32. For Fish Processing Technology course of +2 level, institution to be approached for collaboration is
(1) Sea-fishermen co-operatives
(2) Fish-seed production unit
(3) Fish canning unit
(4) Fish farms
33. Benchmarking means
(1) Selecting, standardizing and developing best practice
(2) Standard performance
(3) Internal evaluation of performance
(4) Measuring effectiveness and cost-effectiveness
34. Annual Statistical Return under Craftsmen Training Scheme, TS-3, relates to
(1) Annual statistical return
(2) Number of trainees declared successful
(3) Trades and Units affiliated to NCVT
(4) Training of industrial workers
35. The role of CII in skill development initiatives is
(1) to support the action taken by the other stakeholders by participating
(2) provide consultancy/advisory services
(3) create global skill sets
(4) provide funds
36. What is APP-1A ?
(1) A half yearly report of individual apprentice
(2) A progress report of R.I.
(3) An apprentice eligibility report for examination
(4) A joining report of apprentice
37. Performance criterion used for measuring performance in vocational training is “cost-effectiveness”, which means
(1) the cost of utilized resources to the budgeted value of resources
(2) the unit cost of producing the planned targeted output
(3) the cost of each unit of output
(4) the deviation of output from objective
38. Staff productivity measures do not include
(1) Stawstudent ratio
(2) The percentage of trainees who have found employment
(3) Module load completion rate
(4) The number of annual hours of training curriculum delivered per instructor
39. In the technique of classroom-questioning, higher order questions do not include
(1) Application
(2) Analysis
(3) Synthesis
(4) Evaluation
40. Fire in industrial and commercial establishment statistically is higher than other causes of fire, because of
(1) Mechanical fault
(2) Electrical fault
(3) Chemical reaction
(4) Gases and vapours
41. The first step in the human resource planning process is
(1) Preparing a job analysis
(2) Forecasting future human resource needs
(3) Assessing future demand
(4) Assessing future supply
42. A written statement of the skills, knowledge, abilities and other characteristics needed to perform a job effectively is called
(1) Job design
(2) Job analysis
(3) Job specification
(4) Job description
43. The basic purpose of human resource planning is
(1) Identify the human resource requirements
(2) Identify the human resource availability
(3) ‘ Match the human resource requirement with human resource availability
(4) 41 of the above
44. A manager may delegate any of the following except :
(1) Authority
(2) Work load
(3) Responsibility
(4) Attendance at meeting to represent the department
45.In his triangle of human needs, Maslow showed that
(1) Challenging tasks is a basic human need
(2) Money always motivates
(3) Social events are required to motivate workers
(4) Safety and security is a low order human need
46.Following is not true of IITs:
(1) They mainly produce technicians
(2) They ire I statutes of National Imy vtance
(3) They produce B.Tech., M.Tech. and Doctorates
(4) They are engaged in research
47.Following does not come under purview of AICTE :
(1) Applied Arts and Crafts
(2) Hotel Management and Catering Technology
(3) Pharmacy
(4) Medical Education
48.Industrial Training Institutes are under
(1) DGE&T
(2) MHRD
(3) UGC
(4) AICTE
49.Which of the following is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource requirements of an organization ?
(1) Trend analysis
(2) Managerial judgement
(3) Ratio analysis
(4) Replacement charts
50.Which of the following is not a case dimension of a job ?
(1) Skill variety
(2) Task identity
(3) Task significance
(4) High internal work motivation
51.Vision of an organisation is
(1) to become the best
(2) what it wants to be in future
(3) statement of resources required
(4) action plan
52. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that
(1) there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
(2) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
(3) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
(4) None of the above
53.In Herbert’s Simon’s theory, a manager who accepts the first satisfactory solution to
a problem has made a_________decision, while a manager who continues to
search for the best possible solution is seeking to find a_________dicision.
(1) satisficing, maximising
(2) maximising, minimising
(3) maximising, satisficing
(4) minimising, maximising
54.The essence of effective communication is that
(1) sender and receiver both attribute the same meaning to a message
(2) sender and receiver both exchange information
(3) the receiver gives feedback to the sender
(4) None of the above
55.Feedback is
(1) a situation in which sender and receiver exchange information
(2) confined to verbal form of communication
(3) confined to written form of communication
(4) None of the above
56.SWOT analysis is
(1) Analysis of demand
(2) Scanning internal and external environment
(3) Networking technique
(4) A mathematical modelling technique
57. CPM stands for
(1) Critical Product Method
(2) Cross Product Method
(3) Critical Path Method
(4) Critical Project Method
58. Periodic revision of curriculum is required to
(1) add new topics, processes, equipments, etc.
(2) remove obsolete topics
(3) make it more relevant
(4) All of the above
59.Outcome Based Education (OBE) focusses on
(1) Infrastructure facilities
(2) Quality of teachers
(3) AbilitiesIGraduate attributes of pass-outs
(4) Admission quality of students
60.How should the plan for development of the technicallvocational education institute
be ?
(1) Short-range plan
(2) Long-range plan
(3) Operational plan
(4) Long-range micro plan
61. Zero-based budgeting for educational institute is based on
(1) Resource requirements for each objective and goal in financial year
(2) A base budget requirement in financial year
(3) A programme based requirement in financial year
(4) None of the above
62. The expenditure incurred by Government in construction of educational institution
is; a/an
(1) Charged expenditure
(5 Revenue expenditure
(3) Capital expenditure
(4) Expenditure under debt heads
63. The sectors, sub-sectors, major and sub-major heads and minor heads have been
prescribed by
(1) Finance Department
(2) Administrative Department
(3) CAG
(4) Legislature
64.A comprehensive operational document conceived and presented in terms of
functions, programmes and activities with their financial and physical aspects
interlinked is a/an
(1) Annual budget
(2) Civil budget
(3) Perfornlance budget
(4) Zero-based budget
65. The expenditure on the maintenance of the schemes of the earlier Five Year Plans
classified as non-plan, includes
(1) salary and non-salary expenditure
(2) exceptionally large variation in the existing items
(3) items of’ schemes of expenditure which are to be introduced for the first time
(4) items of transfer of’ institutional property to local bodies
66. Under World bank assisted project, the Central share released by GO1 to the State is
deposited in
(1) Administrative Department account
(2) SPIU account
(3) Principals account
(4) Consolidated Fund of State
67. When will the cost benefit ratio be more in institutions, if State funding is the
same ?
(1) Starting IRG activities on priority
(2) Providing incentives to industries for in-service training
(3) Delivery of high quality teaching and training performance
(4) Increase retention rate
68. Financial internal control includes procedures for approval, appropriate
documentation, control exercised by
(1) Department head
(2) Regional head
(3) Treasury at the time of release of payment
(4) Institutional head
69. The main budget document is the Annual Financial Statement and is also known as
(1) White Book
(2) Green Book
(3) Blue Book
(4) Yellow Book
70. A programme’s cost-effectiveness can be assessed on the basis of
a. Social cost
b. Private cost
c. Public cost
d. Capital cost
(1) aonly
(2) donly
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b and c
71.A selection process is
a. related to the performance on the job.
b. determining who is best for a given job.
c. an exercise of prediction.
d. determining how to train the employees.
(1) a
(2) b
(3) b and c
(4) d
72. Which one indicates the relationship between the selection device and some relevant
job selection criterion ?
(1) Objectivity
(2) Validity
(3) Reliability
(4) Responsibility
73. Interviews are the valid predictors of success in the work place if
(1) some legal questions are asked
(2) questions asked are preplanned and structured
(3) questions are spontaneous
(4) they are short
74. Asking a candidate for an Automotive Mechanic’s position to repair an engine motor
would be an example of selection device.
(1) Performance-Simulation test
(2) Intelligence test
(3) Aptitude test
(4) Interview
75. A good interviewer would ask
(1) “What type of work have you done before ?”
(2) “Do you own this job ?”
(3) “Do you have any physical disability which would hinder the job performance ?”
(4) “Have you ever filed a compensation claim ?”
76. Which one of the following will influence the method of recruitment and selection
used by a company ?
(1) State of the economy
(2) Size of the organisation
(3) Type of training programmes used by the company
(4) Possible expansion of the company
77. Recruitment is the process
(1) which picks out a few suitable persons from amongst a number of applicants
(2) which develops job descriptions
(3) which searches for prospective employees and stimulates them to apply
(4) All of the above
78. Executive training and development does not involve
(1) Management induction
(2) On-the-job experience
(3) Vestibule schools
(4) Special project
79. Induction and orientation training involves
(1) Information of organisation, work, rules, benefits, etc.
(2) Training by skilled, experienced trainer
(3) Vestibule school training
(4) On-the-job training
80. For selection of operator for motor assembling operation, the essential test is
(1) Personality test
(2) Dexterity test
(3) Interest test
(4) Aptitude test
81. Which method is used to collect trainees opinions about the factors which affect
morale and their effect on personnel objectives ?
(1) Interview method
(2) Questionnaire method
(3) Brainstorming
(4) Focus group
82. Productivity of trainees can be evaluated by
(1) Aptitude test
(2) Performance test
(3) Dexterity test
(4) Intelligence test
83. The marking or assessment of performance tests does not include the component of
(1) Performance standards
(2) Quality and finish of the job
(3) Time allotted and time taken
(4) Accuracy of machine assigned to trainee
84. The acronym ‘SMART’ for Goals stands for
(1) Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
(2) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
(3) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reasonable, Timely
(4) Specific, Meaningful, Appropriate, Realistic, Timely
85.All of the following are advantages of Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
except that they
(1) are more accurate
(2) provide clearer standards
(3) are time consuming
(4) are reliable
86. IS0 9000 series is for
(1) Product Standardization
(2) Financial Management
(3) Systemisation at all levels of operations
(4) Standardization of Educational institutions
87.In motion study charts, 17 elementary motions found in manual operations are
called
(1) Events
(2) Process chart symbols
(3) Therbligs
(4) Activities
88. Quality circle can be described as
(1) Small group of employees in same work area meeting regularly to resolve work
related problems
(2) Time motion study to improve production
(3) Group of industries meeting together to discuss industry related problems
(4) To improvise the productivity of company
89. The ‘Kaizen’ technique envisages
(1) Major improvement in production technique
(2) Japanese technique of small positive improvements so that efficiency in
production is improved
(3) Method of housekeeping in any establishment
(4) Just-in-Time techniques
90. In the Five ‘S’ theory developed for increasing production efficiency, ‘SEIRI’ principle
is
(1) For keeping workplace clean
(2) To arrange items needed in production according to their requirement
(3) Inventory control
(4) Sequencing the operations
91. Buffer stock means
(1) Maximum stock level
(2) Minimum stock level
(3) Re-order level
(4) Average stock level
92. The stock level between maximum and minimum stock level is
(1) Re-order level
(2) Average stock level
(3) Danger level
(4) Economic order quantity
93. OEce and classroom furniture is recorded in
(1) Dead stock register
(2) Consumable stock register
(3) Semi-consumable stock register
(4) Store inventory stock register
94. In ABC Analysis, if A category material is less than 10 percent of the total
consumption, then the total inventory cost will be
(1) 70 to 80%
(2) 40 to 60%
(3) 15 to 25%
(4) Less than 10%
95. Bin Card is used in a store to
(1) Maintain store accounts
(2) Record quantity
(3) Record quantity and value
(4) Post quantity periodically
96. The qualities that make a successful entrepreneur are
a. Dreamer and Innovator
b. Risk taker
c. Committed worker
d. Interpersonal skills
e. Concern for security
f. Continuous learner
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b, c, d and f
(3) a, c, d, e and f
(4) All of the above
97. Population education includes
a. Scientific solutions to reduce waste.
b. Choosing smaller families.
c. Reducing the number of unintended conceptions.
d. .Raising awareness about sustainability .
(1) aandb
(2) c and d
(3) a and c
(4) All of the above
98. The studies on ‘Environment Protection’ focus on
a. Ecological management of Planet Earth.
b. Harmony with nature and peaceful relations.
c. Protection of natural resources.
d. Space exploration.
e. Industrialization and globalization.
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) All of the above
99. The online learning resource ‘MOOC’ stands for
(1) Massive Open Outstanding Course
(2) Massive Open Online Course
(3) Mass Open Output Course
(4) Mass Outstanding Output-oriented Course
100. Skill based pay systems rely on the employee’s_________to define hisher pay.
(1) Job related skills
(2) Job performance
(3) Job description
(4) Job title
