MPSC Deputy Director-Health MMHS Gr-A 2016 Question Paper
1.From the list given below, select the correct combination of various indicators which
compositely form Human Development Index (HDI) :
a. Life expectancy at age one
b. Per capita GDP
c. Gross enrolment ratio
d. Adult literacy rate
e. Life expectancy at birth
f. Female literacy rate
g. Infant mortality rate
Options :
(1) b, c, d, and e
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) b, c, f and g
(4) a, d, f and g
2.Strength of the association in Cohort study is given by
(1) odds ratio
(2) relative risk
(3) attributable risk
(4) population attributable risk
3. Probability of having a disease, if a screening test for the disease reports as positive,
is given by________of the screening test.
(1) sensitivity
(2) specificity
(3) positive predictive value
(4) negative predictive value
4.”Epidemic curve” is plotted during investigation of an epidemic to study the________distribution of cases.
(1) time, place and person
(2) time
(3) time and place
(4) place
5. First Referral Units (FRUs) are established to provide level of health
care.
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) None of the above
6.The term “disease control” means operations aimed at reducing
a. Incidence of disease
b. Duration of disease
c. Transmission of disease
d. Financial burden to the community
(1) a,b,candd
(3) a and b
(2) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d
7. As a Deputy Director of health services, you want to compare health status of two
cities, A and B, by comparing their mortality rates. City A is a new city comprising
mainly of young working population. City B is known for its retired population.
Which of the following mortality rates will you use for the comparison ?
(1) Crude Death Rate
(2) Standardized Mortality Rate
(3) Proportional Mortality Rate
(4) Specific Mortality Rate
8. Statement A :
Strict isolation of cases of Hepatitis A is not a useful control measure in the
epidemic.
Statement B :
Faecal shedding of virus by the cases of Hepatitis A is highest during the
incubation period and early stage of disease.
(1) Both statements, A and B, are correct and B is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both statements, A and B, are correct and B is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but B is false.
(4) B is true, but A is false.
9.Following are the vital statistics data for the year 2013 for city X, with mid-year
population of 1,00,000 :
a. Total live births = 2,000
b. Neonatal deaths = 30
c. Total infant deaths = 50
d. Late neonatal deaths = 10
How much will be the post neonatal mortality rate ?
(1) 0.3 per 1,000 mid-year population
(2) 20 per 1,000 live births
(3) 10 per 1,000 live births
(4) 0.1 per 1,000 mid-year population
10. Which of the following emerging infectious diseases has the highest case fatality
rate ?
(1) Avian influenza A (H7N9)
(2) Ebola virus disease
(3) Influenza A (HlN1)
(4) Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MEW-CoV)
11. World Hepatitis Day is celebrated on
(1) 2sth July
(2) 24th March
(3) 28″ August
(4) 31at Odober
12. Most commonly reported disease in the Post Disaster period is
(1) Acute Respiratory Infections
(2) Gastroenteritis
(3) Tetanus
(4) Malaria
13. An area is declared free of epidemic
(1) Till the last secondary case recovers
(2) When no new cases are reported for the Incubation Period of the disease since
the last case
(3) When no new cases are reported for twice the Incubation Period of the disease
since the last case
(4) When no new cases are reported till half a year
15. By the end of the year 2015, our country aims to eliminate
(1) Malaria
(2) TB
(3) Filariasis
(4) HIV
15. In Radical Neck Dissection, which of the following structures is preserved ?
(1) Spinal Accessory Nerve
(2) Sternocleidomastoid Muscle
(3) Internal Jugular Vein
(4) None of the above
16. In Barium study, ‘Bird beak’ appearance is seen in
(1) Oesophagus Carcinoma
(2) Achalasia Cardia
(3) Hiatus Hernia
(4) Carcinoma Stomach
17. Which of the following eye symptoms are commonly detected in untreated patients of
schizophrenia ?
(1) Retinal pigmentation and Conjunctival pigmentation
(2) Conjunctival pigmentation and Elevated blinking rate
(3) Saccadic movements and Elevated blinking rate
(4) None of the above ‘
18. Which of the following cognitive functions is tested by giving “the odd man out
among the group” task to a person ?.
(1) Concentration and Memory
(2) Abstract Reasoning and Fund of Knowledge
(3) Orientation and Concentration
(4) Abstract Reasoning only
19. Commonest mode of Inheritance in GGPD deficiency is
(1) X-linked recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Mitochondria1
(4) Autosomal recessive
20. Hydatid disease is caused by the following except
(1) E. Granulosus
(2) E. Multilocularis
(3) Strongyloides stercoralis
(4) E. Vogeli
21. Ewing’s Sarcoma is malignancy arising from
(1) Kidney
(2) Bronchus
(3) Bone
(4) Breast
22. When we give the factors predisposing a patient to cause Delirium,. which of the
following is not a correct answer ?
(1) COPD, Polydrug use and Alcohol use
(2) Visual impairment, Hypertension and use of bladder catheter
(3) Abnormal Glucose Test, COPD and Visual impairment
(4) Polydrug use, Visual impairment and Hypertension
23. WHO recommends one of the following for prevention of maternal and neonatal
tetanus in pregnant women :
(1) One dose of inj. ‘IT in one month
(2) Two doses of TT at least one month apart
(3) Three doses of TT at least three months apart
(4) Four doses of TT at least four months apart
24. New case of tuberculosis is
(1) A patient who has never taken treatment for TB or taken treatment for less
than one month
(2) A patient who has left treatment &er one month
(3) A patient returns to DOT centre &er default of two months on treatment
(4) A person who is first time exposed to TB bacilli
25. In Lie-detector Test, which one of the following is not included as an arousal
indicator ?
(1) Heart Rate
(2) Skin Conductance
(3) Pupil Size
(4) Breathing Rate
26. Prevalence of MDRTB in new case as per State level Gujarat, Maharashtra and
Andhra Pradesh Drug Resistance surveillance studies is as follows :
(1) 2% (2) 3%
(3) 4% (4) 5%
27. Among the following, which is the first preferred diagnostic tool for MDRTB as per
the National Laboratory Committee ?
(1) Molecular DST (eg. LPADST)
(2) Liquid Culture isolation and LPADST
(3) Solid Culture isolation and LPADST
(4) Liquid Culture isolation and Liquid DST
28. Annual influenza vaccination is recommended in all except one of the following :
(1) Children 6 to 59 months old
(2) Children 1 to 5 months old
(3) Persons more than 50 years old
(4) Children and Adolescents (6 months – 18 years) receiving long term aspirin
therapy
29. Pseudoparalysis of lower limbs in infancy is seen in the following condition :
(1) Vitamin A deficiency
(2) Vitamin C deficiency
(3) Vitamin D deficiency
(4) Vitamin E deficiency
30.Following statements are true about didactic method of communication except
a. Class-room lecture is an example of didactic method.
b. Knowledge is imposed upon the audience.
c. Learning is authoritative.
d. Audience can participate by adding their own information, ideas and opinions
on the subject.
(1) b and d
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) only d
31. Sputum containers used for sputum collection in RNTCP can be disposed of by
a. Keeping in 5% phenol.
b. Keeping in 5% freshly prepared hypochlorite solution.
c. Autoclaving.
d. Burial.
(1) a orb
(2) a, b or c
(3) c or d
(4) b or d
32.Following properties of drugs are taken into consideration for management of drugs
by VED analysis :
(1) Venomous, Essential, Depressant
(2) Very cheap, Expensive, Donated
(3) Vital, Essential, Desirable
(4) Very difficult, Easy, Difficult (to be available)
33. Following arelwere the goals to be achieved, as per the National Health Policy,
2002 :
a. Eradicate Leprosy by 2015
b. Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis by 2015
c. Reduce IMR to 30 per 1,000 live births by 2010
d. Eradicate Kala-Azar by 2015
(1) bandc
(2) a, b and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and d
34. Most suitable management technique for planning of a complex health programme
at National level, without any prior experience of such a programme is
(1) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
(2) Critical Path Method
(3) Linear Programming
(4) Precedence and Arrow Diagraming
35. Following statements are true about group discussion :
a. It is a didactic method of communication.
b. It is useful to identify and solve problems.
c. Brainstorming is a form of group discussion.
d. Each member is free to suggest any idea, even if it is untenable at face value.
(1) bandc
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and d
(4) a, b and d
36.The process of ensuring that the duties are performed effectively by persons is
called as
(1) Supervision (2) Administration
(3) Management (4) Monitoring
37. Select the correct combination of essential services to be provided at PHC, as per the
Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS) for PHC (Revised 2012).
a. Disinfection of water sources
b. Health education for prevention of STIs
c. Assessment of visual acuity
d. Bacteriological testing of water quality using H2S strip test
(1) a and b
(3) c and d
(2) a, b, c and d
(4) a, b and c
38. Presently which of the following institutes/organisations ads as a think tank and is
the apex technical institute for the promotion of family welfare programmes in
India ?
(1) National Institute of Family Planning
(2) National Institute of Health Administration and Education
(3) National Institute of Health and Family Welfare
(4) National Institute of Population Sciences
39. SWOT analysis of an organisation is analysis of its
(1) Structure, Wealth, Ongoing activities, Time-series
(2) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
(3) Shortfalls, Wealth, Opportunities, Threats
(4) Strengths, Weaknesses, Ongoing activities, Time-series
40. One Disability Adjusted Life Year (DALY) means
(1) One year of healthy life lost
(2) One year of diseased life lost
(3) One year of disabled life lost
(4) One year of partially disabled life lost
41. According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS III), the proportion of rural
population with access to improved sources of drinking water is
(1) 83%
(2) 85%
(3) 87%
(4) 90%
42. Which one of the following is not included in the Human Poverty Index ?
(1) Underweight for age
(2) Percentage of population surviving upto 40 years
(3) Percentage of population using safe water supply
(4) Occupation
43. The Health Sector Reforms in our country have taken special measures to reduce the
impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes on the poor people. This is known as
(1) Social Safety Net
(2) Social Defence
(3) Economic Safety Plan
(4) Social Subsidy
44. The public expenditure on health as a percent of GDP currently is
(1) 1.2%
(2) 3.9%
(3) 5%
(4) 12%
45. All of the following are taken into consideration in the ‘Kuppuswamy Scale’ for
socio-economic status except
(1) Educational status
(2) Occupational status
(3) Per capita income
(4) Type of housing
46. As per the DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course) implementation and
surveillance, 2011, the treatment success rate in our country is
(1) 80%
(2) 88%
(3) 90%
(4) 98%
47. The current life expectancy at birth in our country is
(1) 60years
(2) 65 years
(3) 69 years
(4) 70 years
48. According to National Family Health’Survey (NFHS 111), the proportion of urban
population with access to improved sanitary facilities is
(1) 33%
(2) 43%
(3) 47%
(4) 49%
49. Under the MDG, the proportion of population with access to affordable essential
drugs on a sustainable basis has been included in the
(1) Goal No. 1
(2) Goal No. 5
(3) Goal No. 8
(4) None of the above
50. The deficiency of which vitamin causes Pellagra ?
(1) B1
(2) B2
(3) B3
(4) B6
51.All of the following are seen in Turner’s Syndrome except
(1) Streakgonads
(2) Shield chest
(3) Mental retardation
(4) Webbed neck
52.In IMNCI, a 3-year-old child with some pallor is given iron-folate therapy
for days________days.
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 21
53.All of the following vaccinations are essential prior to splenectomy except
(1) Pneumococcal
(2) Typhoid
(3) Meningococcal
(4) Hib
54. Number of deciduous teeth in a child are
(1) 20
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 18
55. Liver is attached above posterosuperiorly to the diaphragm by which of the following
ligaments ?
(1) Falciform ligament
(2) Coronary ligament
(3) Ligament venosum
(4) Ligamenturn arteriosum
56. In healthy adult sitting with eyes closed, which of the following EEG rhythms will be
seen when electrode is placed in occipital region ?
(1) Delta
(2) Theta
(3) Alpha
(4) Fast, irregular, low voltage
57. Citrullinemia is a metabolic defect in urea cycle occurring due to defect in which
enzyme ?
(1) Arginase
(2) Arginosuccinate synthetase
(3) Arginosuccinase
(4) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
58. In case of Breast Carcinoma, ER-PR receptor status is useful in which of the
following ?
(1) Predicting prognosis
(2) To predict response to R,
(3) Familial predisposition
(4) Recurrence rate of tumour
59. Most diagnostic test for H. Pylori infection is
(1) Urea breath test
(2) Rapid urease assay
(3) Antigeninstool
(4) Histology
60. Which is the most likely side effect seen in slow acetylators on treatment with I.N.H.
for pulmonary tuberculosis ?
(1) Heptotoxicity
(2) Thrombocytopenia
(3) Peripheral Neuropathy
(4) Nephrotoxicity
61. Most common late post-operative complication of appendisectomy is
(1) Pelvic abscess
(2) Fecal fistula
(3) Bowel perforation
(4) Small bowel obstruction
62. All of the following are included in the expectant management of placenta previa
(1) Blood transfusion
(2) Cervical encirclage
(3) Corticosteroids
(4) Anti-D administration
63. Which of the following is not correct about Hypertensive Encephalopathy ?
(1) j Absence of focal localising signs
(2) C.S.F. is normal
(3) MRI shows posterior occipital brain edema
(4) Anterior brain is less severely involved than posterior brain on MRI
64. Gastric aspirate for analysis is stored in
(1) Saturated salt solution
(2) Normal saline
(3) 10% formaline
(4) No preservative needed
65. Ring Scotoma is seen in
(1) Chronic Simple Glaucoma
(2) Papillitis
(3) Optic Atrophy
(4) Choroidal Degeneration
66. Legionella Pneumonia is characterised by
(1) Hyponatremia
(2) Hypernatremia
(3) Hypokalemia
(4) Hypoealcemia
67. Which of the following is not true about tubercular salpingitis ?
(1) Usually uniiateral
(2) Tuba1 occlusion is most commonly at isthmic level
(3) Infection is usually acquired by hematogenous spread
(4) None of the above
68. Blunting effect is seen in
(1) Schizophrenia
(3) Mania
(2) Depression
(4) Delirium
69. Commonest site of Bunion is
(1) Head of first metatarsal
(2) Head of first metacarpal
(3) Tibia1 tuberosity
(4) Olecranon process
70. Which clotting factor deficiency is asymptomatic ?
(1) II
(2) v
(3) XII
(4) XI
71. The cure rate of TB by DOTS is
(1) 95%
(2) 85%
(3) 75%
(4) 65%
72.Pesticide with prolonged duration of action is
(1) DDT
(2) Malathion
(3) Parathion
(4) Celphos
73. Secondary haemorrhage aRer tonsillectomy is usually present on
(1) lSt day
(2) 3rd day
(3) 6th day
(4) 12th day
74. Secondary Glaucoma due to Uveitis is treated with
(1) Timolol + Pilocarpine
(2) Atropine + Pilocarpine
(3) Latanoprost + Brinzolamide
(4) Atropine + Corticosteroids
75.Which of the following indicates severity of an acute illness ?
(1) Case fatality rate
(2) Proportional mortality rate
(3) Prevalence rate
(4) Incidence rate
76.”Chernobyl” tragedy is an example of
(1) point source epidemic
(2) propagated epidemic
(3) modern epidemic
(4) continuous epidemic
77.Which of the following islare modifiable risk factorls for Coronary Heart Disease ?
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Age
c. Obesity
d. High blood pressure
(1) Only d
(2) b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
78. Which of the following statements are true about live vaccine ?
a. More potent than killed vaccine because organism can multiply in host
resulting in larger antigenic dose.
b. More potent than killed vaccine because it has all the major and minor
antigenic components.
c. Produces durable immunity.
d. Boosters are required to maintain immunity.
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only
79. Secular trends of disease refer to it’s
(1) change of pattern over a long period of time
(2) seasonal trend
(3) occurs due to naturally occurring variation in herd immunity
(4) current disease status problem
80. All are advantages of Cohort studies except
(1) Several possible outcomes related to exposure can be studied simultaneously
(2) Does response ratio can be calculated
(3) Bias is minimized
(4) Suitable for study of rare diseases
81. There is no animal reservoir in all except
(1) Hepatitis A
(2) Cholera
(3) Poliomyelitis
(4) Influenza
82. Which of the following are incubatory carriers ?
a. Measles
b. Polio
c. Influenza
d. KFD
e. Hepatitis B
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b, c and e
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) d, b, e and a
83.Which of the following are risk factors for Carcinoma Cervix ?
a. High socio-economic status
b. Early age at first sexual intercourse
c. HPV infection
d. Monogamous relationship
(1) aandc (2) b and d
(3) b and c (4) a and d
84.Which of the following sentence(s) is/are true ?
a. Framingham Study did not include research on Coronary Heart Disease risk
factors.
b. Doll and Hill proved relationship between smoking and lung cancer.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
85.Which of the following vaccines is going to be introduced in the National
Immunization Schedule of India ?
(1) Japanese Encephalitis
(2) Pneumococcal Pneumonia
(3) Yellow Fever
(4) Injectable Typhoid Vaccine
86.The number of Malaria cases reported during last 10 years in a town are given
below :
250,320,190,300,5000,260,350,320,400 and 160
The epidemiologist wants to find out the average number of Malaria cases reported
in that town. The most appropriate measure of average for this data will be
(1) Arithmetic mean
(2) Mode
(3) Median
(4) Geometric mean
87.Which of the following health goals set by the National Health Policy, 2002 islare
correctly matched ?
a. Eradicate Polio and Yaws by 2010
b. Achieve zero level growth of HIV AIDS by 2009
c. Eliminate ma-Azar by 2010
(1) Only b is correct
(2) a and b are correct
(3) b and c are correct
(4) Only a is correct
88.The correlation between two continuous variables was found to be 2.4. This indicates
(1) very strong correlation
(2) moderately strong correlation
(3) weak correlation
(4) computational mistake in calculating correlation
89.Which of the following are Zoonotic diseases ?
a. Yellow fever
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Cholera
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) candd
(4) a, b and d
90.Interval between onset of primary and secondary case is called
(1) Latent period
(2) Serial interval
(3) Generation time
(4) Incubation period
91.Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
a. Diphtheria
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Measles
d. Tetanus
(1) a, b and c
(2) d only
(3) b and c only
(4) d, b and a
92.Which of the following islare precancerous conditiods for oral cancer ?
a. Leukoplakia
b. Melanoplakia
c. Erythroplakia
d. Oral submucous fibrosis
(1) aandb
(2) Only c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
93.In cause association relationship, most essential criteria is
(1) strength of association
(2) consistency
(3) temporal association
(4) duration of relationship
94.The area under normal distribution curve for 2 SD would be around
(1) 68%
(2) 99%
(3) 95%
(4) 90%
95.In’a group of 100 children, the weight of child is 15 kg. The standard error of mean is
1-5 kg. Which of the following statements idare true ?
a. 95% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 kg.
b. 95% of all children weigh between 13.5 and 16.5 kg.
c. 99% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 kg.
d. 99% of all children weigh between 13.5 and 16.5 kg.
(1) Only a
(2) a and c
(3) b and d
(4) Only c
96.The number of patients required in clinical trial to treat specific disease increases as
(1) incidence of disease decreases
(2) significance level increases
(3) the size of the expected treatment effect increases
(4) the dropout rate increases
97.Sample Registration System (SRS) is to acquire information on which of the
following ?
a. Morbidity rates of various diseases
b. Migration statistics
c. Death rates from rural areas
d. Birth and Death rates for the State and the Country
(1) Only a
(2) For bandc
(3) Only b
(4) Only d
98.The ‘QUE’ Model (for Quality, Utilization and Efficiency) focuses on
(1) rate of production
(2) units of care
(3) training
(4) feedback and behavioural modification
