MPSC Assistant Room Officer Chief Examination – 2017 Paper 2

MPSC Assistant Room Officer Chief Examination – 2017 Paper 2

1. Which one of the following statements about ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana’ is not correct?

(1) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL Households.

(2) The Central Government has set a target of 5 crore LPG connections for 2017-18.

(3) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women by providing them with clean cooking fuel.

(4) The scheme was launched in the year 2016.

2. Which name has been decided for ‘Scheme for Agromarine Processing and Development of Agro Processing Clusters’?

(1) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

(2) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana

(3) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

(4) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana

3. Which scheme aimed at empowering the minorities launched in Jammu and Kashmir in January, 201 6 ?

(1) Nai Talaash

(2) Naya Maseeha

(3) Nai Manzil

(4) Nai Pragati, Naya Vishwas

4. Consider the following statements in respect of Kidambi Srikant :
5. He is the first Indian male badminton player to win Australian open.
6. We is the first Indian male badminton player to win Indonesia open.
7. He is the first Indian male badminton player to win China open.
8. He is the first Indian male badminton player to win Swiss Grand Prix Gold.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) A,B,C

(2) B, C, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) A, B, C, D

5. Which of the following statements about the Presidential Election-2017 is incorrect?

(1) The value of vote of members of legislative assemblies depends on the population of his or her state.

(2) The value of vote of each members of Parliament’s vote remains the same.

(3) The value of each vote of member of legislative assembly of Uttar Pradesh had highest value.

(4) The value of each vote of member of legislative assembly of Goa had the lowest value.

6. India’s first of its kind zero-emission electric bus sewice for tourist spot in India is launched in the state of

(1) Uttarakhand

(2) Meghalaya

(3) Himachal Pradesh

(4) Rajasthan

7. The Sports Ministry of India has announced that it is planning to establish a first National Sports Museum. This is proposed in _______ city.

(1) Mumbai

(2) New Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Bengaluru

8. Consider the following statements in regards to Nobel Prize in literature 2017:
9. The name of the winner is Kazuo Ishiguro.
10. He is an British Author.
11. He was born in Japan.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Only statement C is correct

(4) All the above statements are correct

9. The Union Cabinet has approved for a Memorandum of understanding (MoU) signed among India and various BRlCS countries for establishment of the BRICS-ARP. The objective of this MoU is to promote

(1) Sustainable Health Development

(2) Sustainable Agricultural Development

(3) Sustainable Medicine Development

(4) Sustainable Environmental Development

10. Suresh goes 3 km to North and turning to right he goes 6 km. Again he turns to his right 3 km and goes to left 6 km. How far is he from his original place and which direction?

(1) 9 km, South

(2) 6 km, West

(3) 12 km, East

(4) 6 km, North

11. Ankita is older than Sangita. Girish is older than Sangita but younger than Ankita. Shirish is younger than Shyam and Sangita. Sangita is older than Shyam. Who is youngest among them?

(1) Girish

(2) Shyam

(3) Shirish

(4) Sangita

12. Statements: No educationists are researchers.

All researchers are teachers.

Conclusions:

1. No teacher is researcher
2. No teacher is educationist

III. Some researchers are teachers

1. Some teachers are researchers

(1) Only conclusion II true

(2) None of the conclusions is true

(3) Either 1 or Ill true

(4) Only Ill and IV true

13. If ‘MACHINE’ is coded as ’19-7-9-14-15-20-11′, how you will code ‘DANGER’?

(1) 11-7-20-16-11-24

(2) 1 S7-20-9-11-25

(3) 10-7-20-1 3-1 1-24

(4) 13-7-20-1 0-1 1-25

14. Usually Rasila meets her brother at her local railway station at 5.56 p.m. who rides her to their residence. One day she left her office earlier and reached the station at 4.50 p.m. She started walking toward her home, met her brother coming from their residence on the way and they reached their home 20 minutes earlier than usual time. For how long did she walk?

(1) 1 hr. 4 min.

(2) 46 minutes

(3) 56 minutes

(4) Cannot be calculated as time required for reaching home is not given

15. A group is gathered for discussing some problem related to water shortage. Of these 7 persons can speak Kannada, 15 can speak Tamil and 8 can speak Marathi. All of them can understand English but none can speak. Each of them can speak one or more regional languages that are mentioned here. If 3 persons of this group can speak two languages and only 2 persons can speak all three languages then how many persons are in this group 7

(1) 22

(2) 23

(3) 24

(4) 25

16. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of Monika’s father. How is Monika’s husband related to Rahul ?

(1) Uncle

(2) Father

(3) Grandfather

(4) Brother

17. Study the assertion and reason given below :

Assertion (A): Over the past few decades there has been drastic global warming.

Reason (R): The push for economic development has increased to dangerous proportions the emission of green house gases into atmosphere.

Select the most appropriate option that describes assertion and reason:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

18. A, B, C are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times A is three less than two times C, select the option that gives value of C.

(1) 11

(2) 9

(3) 7

(4) 5

19. Due to the encouragement given by ______ , Krishnaji Arjun Keluskar wrote ‘Shivacharitra’ in Marathi.

(1) Sayajirao Gaikwad

(2) Yashwantrao Bhosale

(3) Shahu Maharaj

(4) Tarabai

20. Badoda Vatsal. Raghav Bhushan and Ambalahari were the newspapers by

(1) Lokhilvadi

(2) Alya samajists

(3) Satyashodhaks

(4) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar

21. Pick out the odd person from the following.

(1) Mallappa Dhan Shetty

(2) Jagannath Shinde

(3) Abdul Rasul

(4) Siddhappa Kambli

23. The State of Maharashtra is extended between ________ East longitude to ______ East longitude.

(1) 76⁰ 46′ ; 80⁰ 52′

(2) 72⁰ 36′ ; 80⁰ 54′

(3) 71⁰ 36′ ; 80⁰ 55′

(4) 72⁰ 46′ ; 80⁰ 54′

24. The river Tapi enters in Gujarat State from which district?

(1) Jalgao

(2) Nashik

(3) Nandurbar

(4) Dhule

25. Satpura is divided into two parts due to

(1) Ajanta gap

(2) Narmada gap

(3) Barhanpur gap

(4) Satmala gap

26. A President’s Rule can be imposed in a State under the provision of ______
27. Article 356
28. Article 352
29. Article 360
30. Article 365

(1) Only A

(2) Only A, B

(3) Only A, D

(4) Only A, C

27. Legislative Council is existed in which of the following States of India?
28. Bihar
29. Karnataka
30. Telangana
31. Madhya Pradesh

(1) Only A, B, C

(2) Only A, B, D

(3) Only B, C, D

(4) Only A, C, D

28. Select the correct statement/statements.
29. Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 members.
30. The minimum number of members in Legislative Assembly is 60.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

29. Select the correct statement/statements:
30. The Governor appoints Advocate General of State.
31. The Governor appoints Chairman of State Public Service Commission.
32. The Governor appoints the Judges of High Court.

(1) Only A

(2) Only A, B

(3) Only A, C

(4) All of the above

30. Under Article 12, ‘The State’ includes
31. The Government and Parliament of lndia
32. The Government and Legislature of each State
33. All local Authorities (Municipalities, District Boards)
34. Authorities under the control of Government of lndia

(1) Only A, B, D

(2) Only A, B, C

(3) Only A, B

(4) All of the above

31. Which are the provisions of Indian Constitution related with the Independence of Judiciary?
32. Appointment and removal of Judges
33. Security of tenure
34. Salaries and service conditions
35. Power to punish for contempt of Court

(1) Only A, B, C

(2) Only A, B, D

(3) Only B, C, D

(4) All of the above

32. Which of the following Directive Principle has not been included in the Constitution with regard to conduct of international relations?

(1) Work for the maintenance of just and honorable relations between nations.

(2) Show respect for international law and treaty obligations.

(3) Encourage settlement of international disputes through arbitration.

(4) Work for disarmament.

33. The Indian Constitution provides which one of the following fundamental right only to Indian Citizens?

(1) Right to Equality before Law (Article – 14)

(2) Right to Freedom (Article – 19)

(3) Right to Elementary Education (Article – 21A)

(4) Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article – 21)

34. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
35. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
36. The provisions of the Preamble can be enforced by the Court.
37. Preamble can work as source of power to the Legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only A

(2) Only C

(3) Only B, C

(4) A,B,C

35. The Right to information Act was passed with following objectives.

(1) Creating transparency in public authorities

(2) Creating accountability in functions of public authority

(3) Constituting the information Commissions

(4) All of above

36. Under Right to information Act, 2005, “prescribed means rules made under this Act by the
37. Appropriate Government
38. Competent Authority
39. High Courts
40. Administrative Tribunals

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(1) Only A

(2) Only A and B

(3) Only A, B and C

(4) Only D

37. Which provision of the Right to information Act, 2005 provides “Right to information” to citizens?

(1) Section 2

(2) Section 3

(3) Section 4

(4) Section 5

38. The Chief information Commissioner or any information Commissioner shall be removed from his office only
39. By recommendation of Prime Minister to the President
40. On a reference of the Supreme Court by order of the President
41. On the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity
42. By order of the President after giving judgement by High Court

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(1) Only A

(2) All above

(3) C and D

(4) B and C

39. Right to information is _______

(1) Contractual Right

(2) Constitutional Right

(3) Statutory Right

(4) None of the above

40. _________ means a system of secure key pair consisting of a “private key” for creating a digital signature and a “public key” to verify the digital signature.

(1) Ascertain Crypto System

(2) Acting Crypto System

(3) Asynchronous Crypto System

(4) Asymmetric Crypto System

41. The external device used to store an image by optical reading is termed as

(1) Monitor

(2) Printer

(3) Scanner

(4) None of the above

42. Ministry of Human Resource Development of Govt. of lndia which aims at creating digital learning environment for design in lndia with ICT.

(1) e-sagu

(2) e-tutor

(3) e-kalpa

(4) e-shiksha

43. MHRD’s ______ project is premier database of profile of scientist and researches and other faculty leading academic institutions to record of R and D organizations developed by ‘INFLIBNET’.

(1) Sanskar

(2) E-Tallent

(3) Vidwan

(4) E-Research

44. The actual number of ‘Bits’ shown by the term Kb (Kilobits) in reference to computer terminology is

(1) 1000 bits

(2) 1024 bits

(3) 1040 bits

(4) None of the above

45. In reference to the computer terminology the term ‘TB’ stands for

(1) Computer virus

(2) Tera Bits

(3) Tera Bytes

(4) No ne of the above

46. Which is the certifying authority listed below certified by Controller of Certifying Authorities of India for Digital Certificates?

(1) D-mudra

(2) e-mudhra

(3) D-certificate

(4) DCA

47. SRAM, DRAM, EDO-RAM are the computer memory types related to

(1) Random Access Memory

(2) Read Only Memory

(3) Hard Disk Memory

(4) None of the above

48. An interface used between CPU and RAM to boost the speed is termed as

(1) ROM

(2) Cache memory

(3) Hard disk memory

(4) None of the above

49. Which among the below is termed as ‘Brain’ of the computer?

(1) Motherboard

(2) Hard Disk

(3) C.P.U.

(4) None of the above

50. Consider the following statements about creation and abolition of Legislative Council.
51. The Parliament under Article 169 is empowered to create or abolish the Legislature Council
52. Where the Legislative Council is to be created or abolished the concerned State Legislature Assembly should pass a resolution to this effect by a simple majority
53. In Parliament, such a Resolution/Act is passed by a simple majority.

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) A, B, C

(3) B, C

(4) A, C

51. Which one of the following matters on which amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?

(1) Fifth schedule

(2) Sixth schedule

(3) Seventh schedule

(4) Second schedule

52. Under which of the following circumstances, Governor cannot use his individual discretionary power?

(1) Appointment of the Chief Minister when no party has clear majority

(2) Appointment of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly

(3) Dissolution of the Assembly on the advice of the Chief Minister who has lost majority support of Assembly

(4) Dissolution of the Assembly on the advice of the Chief Minister who has clear majority in Assembly

53. Consider the following statements:
54. The JVP Committee under the Chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru submitted its report in 1948
55. The Bilingual State of Bombay was divided by the State Reorganization Act
56. The Bilingual State of Bombay was divided by the Bombay Reorganization Act

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) A, B

(2) A, C

(3) C only

(4) B only

54. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
55. The CAG enjoys the same status as that of Chief Election Commissioner, but higher than the Deputy Chairman of Rajyasabha according to the order of precedence
56. The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the CAG after consultation with the President

(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct

(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are false

55. The correct hierarchy of the Secretarial Department is

(1) Secretary – Joint Secretary -Additional Secretary – Under Secretary – Deputy Secretary -Assistant Secretary

(2) Secretary – Additional Secretary – Under Secretary – Joint Secretary – Deputy Secretary – Assistant Secretary

(3) Secretary – Joint Secretary – Deputy Secretary – Under Secretary – Section Officer

(4) Secretary – Joint Secretary – Additional Secretary – Under Secretary – Assistant Secretary – Deputy Secretary

56. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
57. Preparation of Agenda for Cabinet Meetings
58. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
59. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministers

Select the correct options given below.

(1) Only A

(2) Band C

(3) A and B

(4) A, B and C

57. Consider the following statements:
58. 95^th Amendment Act of 2009 extended the period of reservation of seats for the SCIST in the Loksabha and the State Legislative Assemblies till 2020.
59. Article 334 of the Indian Constitution did not provide the reservation of seats for women in the local bodies and hence reservation for women is not restricted for a specific period.

(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct

(2) Statement ‘6’ is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are false

58. Who among the following are part of the Union Executive of lndia ?
59. The President
60. Council of Ministers
61. Attorney General
62. Comptroller and Auditor of India

(1) A, B, D

(2) B, C, D

(3) A, B, C

(4) A, C, D

59. Which of the following subjects mentioned in the State list of the seventh schedule in the Indian Constitution was/were specifically excluded from the jurisdiction of the Govt. of National Capital Territory of Delhi ?
60. Public Security
61. Police
62. Land
63. Taxes

(1) B only

(2) A, B

(3) A, B, C

(4) A, B, C and D

60. Consider the following statements regarding an Advocate General of a State
61. He must be person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a High Court
62. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Judge of a High Court
63. He receives remuneration that is available to a Judge of a High Court
64. He holds office during the pleasure of the State Council of Ministers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A, B, D

(2) A, B, C

(3) Only D

(4) Only A

61. Which Amendment of the Constitution of lndia limits the number of Ministers ?

(1) 73rd Amendment

(2) 86th Amendment

(3) 87th Amendment

(4) 91th Amendment

62. The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of the President in lndia is proposed by

(1) At least five citizens of lndia

(2) At least five members of the Parliament

(3) At least fifty members of the Electoral College

(4) At least ten members of the Electoral College

63. Which of the following one the provisions of Article 75 of the Constitution in lndia ?
64. Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister
65. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People
66. There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister to aid and advice to the President of lndia
67. The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be determined by Parliament

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below.

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, b and d only

(3) b, c and d only

(4) All above

64. To whom has the right to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of lndia ?

(1) Prime Minister

(2) Chief Justice of India

(3) Parliament

(4) Law Minister

65. Who among the following dignitaries has to take an oath to defend the Constitution of lndia before taking up post ?
66. President
67. Vice-president
68. Prime Minister
69. Speaker of Lok Sabha

(1) A only

(2) A and B

(3) A. Band C

(4) A. B, C and D

66. Consider the following statements :
67. Article – 332 of the Indian Constitution deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the States.
68. At present, in Maharashtra, 29 constituencies are resewed for the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes.
69. At present, in Maharashtra, 25 constituencies are resewed for the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) A, B

(3) B, c

(4) A, B, C                                                 

67. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Zero Hour’.
68. It follows the question hour
69. It mentioned in the rules of procedure
70. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedure
71. During zero hour, members are free to bring up any issue of public interest without prior notice

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) A, B.C

(2) A, C, D

(3) B, C, D

(4) A, B, D

68. Consider the following statements about the legislative powers of the Governor of the State :
69. He can summons or prorogue the Session of State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative assembly
70. He can adjourn the sittings of the State Legislature
71. He can send messages to State Legislature with respect to a pending Bill
72. He can reserve the Bill for consideration of the President if it opposed to the Directive Principle

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) A, C, D

(2) A, B, C

(3) B, C, D

(4) A, B, D

69. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the Legislative  about the Legislative Committee System in Maharashtra?

(1) A minister  shall not be a member  of the Committee

(2) If the Deputy speaker is a member of the Committee, he shall be appointed in a Chairman of the Committee

(3) A member of a Committee shall be eligible for renomination

(4) The quorum of a Committee shall be as near as may be one third of the total number of members of the Committee

70. Consider the following statements
71. The Indian Federation is the result of an agreement among the States.
72. The Indian Federation has been observed by Supreme Court as an ‘Indestructible Union of Destructible Units’.
73. The American Federation has been described by their Supreme Court as ‘an indestructible Union composed of indestructible States’.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) A, B

(2) Only B

(3) B and C

(4) Only C

71. Assertion (A) : Under the Government of lndia Act, 1935, the Residuary Powers were vested in the Central Legislature.

Reason (R) : Under the Government of lndia Act, 1935 subjects are divided into three lists viz. Federal, Provincial and Concurrent.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

72. Consider the following statements :
73. The first Sheriff of Mumbai after independence was shantararn Mahadeo Dahanukar
74. The Sheriff is an officer of the High Court
75. The tenure of the Mumbai Sheriff is five years
76. The rank of the Sheriff is below the Mayor

Which of the statement/s given above are correct?

(1) A and B

(2) B and C

(3) B and D

(4) C and D

73. Consider the following statements.
74. The President may, without the consent of the State Government, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that government or to its officers, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
75. The Governor of a State may, with the consent of Government of India, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that government or to its officers, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends.

(1) Statement A is correct

(2) Statement B is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are false

74. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Under the 3ath Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975, satisfaction of the President is final and conclusive in applying Article 356 which could not be challenged in any Court on any ground.

(2) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 implies that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial review.

(3) Secularism is one of the basic features of the Constitution. Hence a State Government pursuing anti-secular policies is liable to action under Art. 356.

(4) None of the above

75. Which among the following committees recommended a two tier system of Panchayat raj ?

(1) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee

(3) Vasantrao Naik Committee

(4) Dr. L. M. Sanghvi Committee

76. Panchayat Samiti is known as ” ________ “ in Assam.

(1) Anchalik Panchayat

(2) Janpad Sabha

(3) Mahakama Parishad

(4) Zilla Panchayat

77. The Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai functions according to the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act

(1) 1988

(2) 2001

(3) 1888

( 4) 1788

78. Consider the following functions of Municipal Corporation and identify that which of them are obligatory functions ?
79. Registration of births and deaths.
80. Protection of the environment.
81. Making provision for secondary and higher secondary education.
82. Construction and maintenance of the bridges and public roads.

Choose correct options from above

(1) A and B

(2) A, B and D

(3) A and D

(4) All the above

79. The Cantonment Boards in Maharashtra are
80. Kamptee
81. Badnera
82. Deolali
83. Khadki

(1) Only A, B, C

(2) Only B, C, D

(3) Only A, C, D

(4) Only A, B, D

80. 1 2th Schedule of the Indian Constitution Specifically mentions _______ types of weaker sections in the society to be taken care by the municipalities.

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Six

(4) Seven

81. Which amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added provisions regarding municipalities ?

(1) 72^nd Amendment

(2) 73^rd Amendment

(3) 74^th Amendment

(4) 76^th  Amendment

82. Which was the first municipal corporation established in India ?

(1) Bombay

(2) Calcutta

(3) Madras

(4) Delhi

83. According to the Maharashtra Municipal Corporation Act the standing Committee of the Municipal Corporation shall consist of________ Councillors.

(1) 10

(2) 12

(3) 16

(4) 15

84. According to 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayat Raj Institutions should be

(1) 18yrs.

(2) 25 yrs.

(3) 21 yrs.

(4) 30 yrs.

85. Which Schedule is added to Indian Constitution by 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act ?

(1) 9^th Schedule

(2) 10^th Schedule

(3) 11^th Schedule

(4) 12^th Schedule

86. How many functions responsibilities of the municipalities are listed in the 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

(1) 29

(2) 18

(3) 25

(4) 22

87. Select the correct statement/statements –
88. 73^rd Constitutional Amendment is not applicable to States of Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland
89. Madhya Pradesh is a first State, to implement the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A and B

88. Select the Incorrect statements about 73^rd Constitution Amendment –
89. This Amendment gives Constitutional status to Panchayat Raj
90. This Amendment establishes State Financial Commission for Panchayat Raj
91. This Amendment exempts some States and certain areas
92. Rajasthan became the first state, to implement this amendment

(1) Only A, B

(2) Only B, C

(3) Only C, D

(4) Only A, C

89. Which of the following Judgement started system of collegium in the appointment of Supreme Court and High Court Judges ?

(1) Keswananda Bharati’s Case 1973

(2) S. P. Gupta Case 1982

(3) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association Case, 1993

(4) Ramaswami Case 1992

90. On which of the following grounds, Writ of Certiorari can not be issued ?

(1) Where there is error of Jurisdiction

(2) Where there is error of law apparent on the face of record

(3) Where there is error of facts apparent on the face of record

(4) Where there is violation of principles of natural justice

91. The number of judges of the Supreme Court of India is maintained from time to time by which of the following provision ?

(1′) Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India

(2) The Indian Penal Code, 1860

(3) The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956

(4) None of the above

92. Consider following statements:
93. The essence of judicial activism is an active and efficient justice delivery.
94. Liberalisation of “Rule of Locus standi” has introduced the Public Interest Litigation (PIL).

Which one of the following options is correct?

(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct and statement ‘B’ is incorrect

(2) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct but they have no correlation with each other

(3) Statement ‘A’ and ‘8’ are correct and they are consistent with each other

(4) Statement ‘B’ is incorrect but it is complementary to statement ‘A’