MPSC Assistant Chemical Analyzers Question Paper 2017

MPSC Assistant Chemical Analyzers Question Paper 2017

 

1. In the determination of Ca with AAS, interferences occur due to formation of refractory oxides CaO. P₂0₅ and CaO. SiO₃. It can be eliminated by
2. Changing air-acetylene flame to nitrous-oxide-acetylene flame
3. Decreasing oxygen concentrations
4. Adding of a releasing agent
5. Using fuel-rich flame

 

(1)  a and b only

(2)  a and c only

(3)  a and d only

(4)  a, b, c and d

 

2. Iron (III) is best determined by uv- visible spectroscopy with

(1) Thiocyanate

(2) Acetate

(3) Cyanide

(4) Dimethylglyoxime

 

3. In the AAS, Ne gaseous ions bombarded the cathode (Hollow Cathode Lamp) and eject metal atoms from cathode, The process is referred to as

            (1) Sputtering

(2) Ejectoning

(3) Excitation

(4) Ionisation

 

4. Moment of nuclei is negligible during the time taken by an electronic transition. It is called

(1) Franck-Condon principle

(2) Born-Oppenheimer approximation

(3) Lambert-Beer’s law

(4) None of the above

 

5. In flame photometry the negative deviation from the straight line are observed because of

               (1) High concentration

(2) Low concentration

(3) Does not depend on concentration

(4) High temperature

 

6. In some spectrophotometers a prism is used with a grating which have the following advantage(s)

(1) It gives double dispersion and reduces stray light

(2) It eliminates maximum light

(3) It reduces red light

(4) All of the above

 

7. In uv-visible spectroscopy, for optimum dispersion, the slits should be put

(I) as far as possible

(2) as near as possible

(3) anywhere near each other

(4) None of the above

 

8. In scanning electron microscopy the electrons in the beam interact with the sample and give information about the surface___________and______________.

(1) Topography, morphology

(2) Topography, monography

(3) Polarography, sampling

(4) None of these

 

9. The emission spectroscopy is useful because

(1) It is extremely sensitive

(2) It is very specific

(3) It is sensitive as well as specific

(4) It is neither sensitive nor specific

 

10. Scanning Transmission Electron Microscope (STEMS) can be used for studies of particulate and thin foil having beam of diameter as small as

(1) 1nm

(2) 2 nm

(3) 3nm

(4) 4 nm

 

11. The emission spectra are of

(1) Two types

(2) Single type

(3) Three types

(4) Four types

 

12. In amperometry the potential applied between the indicator electrode and reference electrode is

(1) Changed slowly

(2) Changed rapidly

(3) Kept constant

(4) None of these

 

13. In the amperometric titrations, which one is the best example of using rotating platinum electrode

(1) Nickel with DMG

(2) Lead with dichromate ion

(3) Arsenate by KBr0₃

(4) Cu, Co, Pt with a-nitroso-B-naphthol

 

14. In the voltammetry technique following are the statements :
15. It is based on the potential-current behariour of unpolarisable electrode in analyte.
16. In which potential of the micro-working electrode is varied and the resulting current is recorded.
17. Where, cathodic current is positive and anodic current is negative.
18. If the analyte solution is dilute, the current will reach a limiting value.

 

           Which of the above statements is/are correct?

             (1) a only

(2) a, b and c only

(3) b, c and d only

(4) a, c and d only

 

15. The most important requirement for electro gravimetric analysis is/are
16. The deposition of the substance of interest must be complete.
17. The deposit must be inert i.e. it may not undergo any change in its weight during the process of electrolysis.
18. The deposit must be of known composition.
19. The deposit must adhere firmly so that the electrode can be rised and weighted without loss.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, c and d only

(4) All of the above

 

16. In the voltammetry technique, substance from analyte reduced or oxidised at a micro-electrode is said to be

(1) Depolariser

(2) Polariser

(3) semi-polariser

(4) None of these

 

17. Cyclic voltammetry can be applied to_________electrode as well as to________mercury drop and to reaction for which stripping analysis is___________due to__________irrwersible electrode process.

(1) Stationary, single, inapplicable, highly

(2) Moving, single, applicable, slowly

(3) Stationary, double, inapplicable, highly

(4) Moving, double, applicable, slowly

 

18. Electromagnetic radiation is characterized by

(1) Amplitude

(2) Periodicity

(3) Wavelength and wave number of frequency

(4) All of the above

 

19. The region of greatest importance for emission analysis is

(1) 200 + 300 nm

(2) 200+ 500nm

(3) 250 + 400 nm

(4) 400 + 600 nm

 

20. In amperometry either the titrant (reagent) or the species being titrated should be

(1) Radioactive

(2) Photoactive

(3) Eledroadive

(4) Gas sensitive

 

21. The polarographic method may be used for the determination of which of the following inorganic anions?

(1) Cyanide

(2) Bromide

(3) Dichromate

(4) All of the above

 

 

22. The sampling of gas filled cylinder is done by

(1) Stack sampling

(2) Flushing sampling

(3) Ambient sampling

(4) Random sampling

 

23. The retention factor for a particular solute depends upon

(1) Stationary phase

(2) Mobile phase

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

 

24. Which one of the following is a limitation of HPTLC?

(1) It requires an internal standard

(2) It is not useful in herbal analysis

(3) It cannot be fully automated

(4) The mobile phase consumptions of sample is high

 

25. TLC is a separation technique based on

(1) Solubility

(2) Adsorption

(3) Partition

(4) Fractional distillation

 

26. Which of the following statements about preamplifier, IF amplifier and RF amplifier is wrong?

(1) The outputs of IF and RF amplifiers are adjustable

(2) A preamplifier is located near or inside a probe i.

(3) They are all frequency tunable amplifiers

(4) RF amplifier has a linear dependence of attenuation

 

27. How many signals will diethyl ether give in PMR spectra?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

 

28. The absence of double band at about 2800 cm^-1 in the IR spectrum of unknown organic compound eliminates from consideration the possibility of the

(1) Acetophenone

(2) Aldehyde

(3) Ketone

(4) Ester

 

29. In uv, visible spectroscopy of organic compound, the n – o* electronic transition which arises in saturated compounds containing the hetero atoms S, N, Br and I is of less importance because

(1) They are inactive

(2) Their absorption is just above 700 nm

(3) Their absorption is just below 200 nm

(4) The bond ruptures

 

30. In uv-visible spectrum, the term auxochrome is used to designate groups possessing

(1) Bonding electron pairs conjugated with a n-bond system.

(2) Non-bonding electrons pairs conjugated with a n-bond system.

(3) Bonding electron pair conjugated with a o bond system.

(4) Non-bonding electron pair conjugated with a o-bond system.

 

31. The strength of Earth’s magnetic field is about____________gauss.

(1) 0.10

(2) 0.57

(3) 0.23

(4) 0.37

 

32. The__________shift is the position of an absorption peak relative to that of a reference compound (usually TMS).

(1) Red

(2) Blue

(3) Chemical

(4) Red and blue

 

33. In________ NMR spectral determination, mostly carbon tetrachloride and deuteron chloroform are used as solvents for dissolving the samples.

(1) ¹H

(2) ¹³C

(3) ¹⁵N

(4) ¹⁹F

 

34. In_____________ analysis, gas chromatograph separates the components of the mixture while the mass spectrometer gives the structural information via fragmentation.

               (1) GC

(2) MS

(3) GC -MS

(4) Chemical

 

35. If an organic compound is not absorbed in uv radiations, it means that it does not contain

(1) Sigma bond

(2) Single bond

(3) Dative bond

(4) Conjugate double bond

 

36. Which of the following quantities is not changed at a different magnetic field strength?

(1) Chemical shift (in Hertz)

(2) Nucleus spins population in an energy state

(3) Coupling constant (J)

(4) Energy difference between two energy states of nuclei with non-zero spin quantum number

 

37. The base ion peak at m/z- 43 in the mass spectrum is due to the loss of

(1) Methoxy group

(2) Carbonyl group

(3) Methyl group

(4) Acetyl group

 

38. Which proton readily exchanges with deuterium?

(1) Aldehydic proton

(2) Hydrocarbon proton

(3) Aromatic ring proton

(4) Hydroxyl proton

 

39. __________is used as a reference standard in NMR spectroscopy.

(1) Tetramethylsilane

(2) Trimethylsilane

(3) Dimethyl Sulphone

(4) Dimethyl Sulphoxide

 

40. How many signals will be obtained in the PMR spectra of propan-2-01?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

 

41. In NMR spectroscopy, in every sample, a small amount of__________is added as a reference

(1) Dimethylformamide

(2) Dimethyl sulfoxide

(3) Tetramethylsilane

(4) Tetramethyl silanol

 

42. The peak of highest intensity in a mass spectrum is referred to as the

(1) Front peak

(2) Base peak

(3) Molecular peak

(4) Back peak

 

43. Which serological technique utilizes competition between radioisotope labeled antigen and test antigen for detection?

(1) Flow cytometry

(2) Immunoelectrophoresis

(3) Radioimmunology assay

(4) Immunofluorescence assay

 

44. To identify an individual on the basis of DNA analysis of the blood, investigators look for

(1) RNA primers

(2) DNA finger prints

(3) DNA probes

(4) Nucleosomes

 

45. Okazaki fragments are synthesized by DNA polymerase during

(1) DNA replication

(2) Translation

(3) Cloning

(4) Transcription

 

46. The heat stable isozyme of alkaline phosphates, which is inhibited by phenyl alanine and is characteristically seen in the circulation of cases of carcinoma of lung, liver and gut is named as

(1) Leukocyte alkaline phosphates

(2) Beta isozyme

(3) Regan is enzyme

(4) Pre-beta alkaline phosphates

 

47. Which key feature of Taq polymerase allows PCR to be conveniently performed?

(1) Taq polymerase does not require primers.

(2) Taq polymerase does not require templates.

(3) Taq polymerase is heat stable.

(4) Taq polymerase can work at very low temperatures.

 

48. In liver disease the elevated serum LDH is primarily due to increase in

(1) LDH-landLDH-2

(2) LDH – 2 and LDH – 3

(3) LDH-3andLDH-4

(4) LDH – 4 and LDH – 5

 

49. DNA fingerprinting is based on

(1) Non-repetitive sequence

(2) Sequence polymorphism

(3) Constant tandem repeats

(4) Variable number tandem repeats

 

50. The most suitable traditional method of quantitative assay for pure protein is based on reaction of aromatic amino acids with phospho-tungstic acid is

(1) Micro-Kjeldahl method

(2) Nephalometric met

(3) Folin-Ciocalteu (Lowry) method

(4) Folin-Wu method

 

51. The degree of unsaturation in a lipid is measured by

(1) Saponification number

(2) Iodine number

(3) Acid number

(4) Reichert-Meissl number

 

52. In reverse transcriptase PCR method (RT-PCR), the DNA polymerase that has both polymerase and reverse transcriptase activities at high temperature, is obtained from

(1) Escherichia coli (Kornberg’s enzyme)

(2) Thermos aquatics

(3) Thermos thermopiles

(4) Haemophilus influenza (Rd)

 

53. The buffer which is used for nucleic acids separation and typically contains EDTA, has low ionic strength and pH range of 7.5 – 7.8 is

(1) Phosphate buffer

(2) Acetate buffer

(3) Barbitone buffer

(4) Tris-Phosphate buffer

 

54. What is the role of sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS) in SDS-PAGE?

(1) Protein unfolding

(2) Imparting net positive charge to the protein

(3) Imparting equal mass to all proteins

(4) Protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge to the protein

 

55. Which of the following techniques is used for the detection of Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLPs)?

(1) Northern blotting

(2) Southern blotting

(3) Western blotting

(4) Eastern blotting

 

56. Proteins when heated with concentrated nitric acid give a yellow colour and when NaOH is added, deep orange colour is obtained. This test is known as

(1) Xanthoproteic test

(2) Hoppe’s test

(3) Acid-base test

(4) Biuret test

 

57. Prenatal diagnosis is a wide array of genetic diseases is best done by

(1) PCR

(2) Linkage analysis

(3) RFLP

(4) Cytometry

 

58. Which of the following is required for DNA synthesis but not for RNA synthesis?

(1) Nucleotides

(2) Sugar

(3) Polymerase

(4) Primer

 

59. Which of the following separation techniques depends on the molecular size of the protein?

(1) IS0 electric focusing

(2) Gel filtration chromatography

(3) Ion-exchange chromatography

(4) Affinity chromatography

 

60. _________method is used for quantization of the viruses present in a sample (for example viral load in HIV or HBV), which would help in planning of the treatment modalities and assessment of the response to the treatment

(1) Nested PCR

(2) Real Time PCR

(3) RACE- PCR

(4) Multiplex- PCR

                          

61. The most efficient buffer system in blood plasma, accounting for 65% of buffering capacity in plasma and 40% in the whole body, that regulate pH between 7.35 – 7.45

(1) Hemoglobin buffer

(2) Protein buffer

(3) Bicarbonate buffer

(4) Acetate buffer

 

62. The correct statements among the following are :
63. The alkali salts are largely adsorbed by the porous charcoal.
64. The oxides of noble metals eg. Ag are decomposed without the aid of charcoal to the metal, which is often obtained as a globule, and oxygen.
65. The oxides of Pb, Cu are reduced to a fused metallic globule.
66. The oxides of Zn, Cd are readily reduced to the metal, but these are so volatile that they vaporize.

 

(1) a, c and d only

(3) b, c and d only

(2) a, b and c only

(4) All of the above

 

63. With reference to co-precipitation, select the correct statement from the following :
64. Surface adsorption and mixed crystal formation are equilibrium processes.
65. Occlusion and mechanical entrapment arise from the kinetics of crystal growth.
66. Contamination of a precipitate by a second substance whose solubility product has been exceeded causes

Co-precipitation.

1. It affects purity which can be easily detected.

 

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) A and b only

(4) A, b, c and d

 

64. Select the correct statement from the following :
65. When relative supersaturation is large, the precipitate tends to be colloidal.
66. When relative supersaturation is large, a crystalline solid is formed.
67. If nucleation predominates, a large number of fine particles are produced.

 

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and c only

(4) b and c only

 

65. Calmagite is  a / an
66. ore of calcium
67. precipitating agent for calcium
68. protolytic indicator
69. metallochromic indicator

 

(1) a only

(2) band c only

(3) c only

(4) d only

 

66. For dissolution and digestion of inorganic species of biological samples, which of the following technique(s) is employed?
67. Microwave assisted digestion
68. High pressure digestion
69. Dry and wet ashing
70. Use of ion-pair forming agent

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, b and c only

(4) a, b and d only