MPSC Assistant Chemical Analyser, Gr-B Screening Test – 2016 Question Paper

MPSC Assistant Chemical Analyser, Gr-B Screening Test – 2016 Question Paper

1. The molar concentration of a solution of chemical species is the number of moles of that species that is present in

(1) One litre of the solvent

(2) One cm³ of the solution

(3) One cm³ of the solvent

(4) One litre of the solution

2. The molarity of a K₃Fe (CN) ₆ solution that contains 63.3 ppm of k₃Fe (CN) ₆ (329.3 gm/mol) is

(1) 0.1922 M

(2) 5.2022 M

(3) 1.922 x 10^-4 M

(4) 1.922 M

3. Crystalline precipitate should ordinarily be digested for longer duration on steambath in order to avoid the problem of

(1) Co- Precipitation

(2) Post precipitation

(3) Co- precipitation and post precipitation both

(4) Dissolution of the precipitate

4. _________ is the closeness of measurement to other measurement made in exactly the same way.

(1) Precision

(2) Accuracy

(3) Deviation

(4) Error

5. 2 M Sulphuric acid solution is equivalent to

(1) 1 N H₂SO₄

(2) 2 N H₂SO₄

(3) 6 N H₂SO₄

(4) 4 N H₂SO₄

6. Crystalline precipitate should ordinarily be digested for longer duration on steambath in order to avoid the problem of

(1) Co-precipitation

(2) Post precipitation

(3) Co-precipitation and post precipitation both

(4) Dissolution of the precipitate

7. The boundaries of confidence interval are called

(1) Significance limit

(2) Confidence limits

(3) Confidence range

(4) Significance level

8. The chemical analysis is affected by at least_______ types of errors.

(1) Indeterminate

(2) Determinate

(3) None of these

(4) All of these

9. Mohr’s method is used for estimation of

(1) Nitrate ions

(2) Chloride ions

(3) Fluorine ions

(4) Sulphate ions

10. Non-aqueous ionizing solvents can sometimes be used in acidimetry and alkalimetry. In which one can the solvent encourage the loss of proton from a weak acid making it effectively much stronger?

(1)  Polar solvent

(2) Non-polar solvent

(3) Acidic solvent

(4) Basic solvent

11. The following indicator solution is called as adsorption indicator:

(1) Tartrazine

(2) Fluorescein

(3) Methyl red

(4) None of the above

12. Primary standard solution contain a substance which is

(1) Highly pure

(2) Stable in air

(3) More soluble in water

(4) All of the above

13. If the precipitate is a salt weak acid and strong base and is slightly soluble, it may exhibit a tendency to hydrolyse and the solube product hydrolysis will be a

(1) Base

(2) Acid

(3) Neutral

(4) Polar

14. Washing of precipitate in gravimetric analysis is more advantageous if precipitate is washed with given amount of solvent with

(1) More amount of solvent each time but less number of washing

(2) Less amount of solvent each time but more number of washing

(3) One washing with all the solvent

(4) None of the above

15. The contamination of the precipitate by substances, which are normally soluble in the mother liquor is referred to as

(1) Digestion

(2) Coagulation

(3) Precipitation

(4) Co-precipitation

16. Occlusion means

(1) Slow precipitation

(2) Crystal formation

(3) Precipitate settles down

(4) A compound is trapped within a pocket formed during rapid crystal growth

17.PPM_A may be expressed as

(1) (mass of A/mass of solution) x 10⁶

(2) (mass of A/mass of solution) x 10^-6

(3)  (mass of A/mass of solution) x 10⁶

(4) (mass of A/mass of solution) x 10^-6

18. The solubility product of AgCI and AgI are 1.2 x 10^-10 and 1.7 x 10^-16. When silver nitrate solution is added in solution containing nitrate, chloride and iodide ion, which salt will be precipitated first?

(1) Silver chloride

(2) Silver iodide

(3) Silver nitrate

(4) All of the above

19. An assay is a process of determination of

(1) % error

(2) % of sample

(3) How much of given sample is the material indicated by its name

(4) None of the above

20. The best indicator for titration of HCI with NH₄OH is

(1) Diphenylamine

(2) Methyl orange

(3) Phenol red

(4) Phenolphthalein

21. Metallochrome indecators are

(1) Strong acids

(2) Strong bases

(3) Weak acids

(4) Weak bases

22. The indicator Eriochrome Black T is red in the pH range

(1) 4.7 to 6.7

(2) 7.7 to 10.8

(3) 11.2 to 12.4

(4) 12.7 to 13.2

23. The region between _________ is known as quartz region.

(1) 150 nm to 300 nm

(2) 150 nm to 380 nm

(3) 200 nm to 380 nm

(4) 200 nm to 300 nm

24. In AAS nitrous oxide acetylene flame is preferred to produce ground state atoms for those elements which are

(1) One

(2) One or less than one

(3) Infinity

(4) Depend on mist

25. In the spectrophotometry titration of a copper ion solution with EDTA may be carried out at a wavelength of______nm.

(1) 420

(2) 470

(3) 560

(4) 745

26. UV-visible spectra of condensed system are useful as

(1) vacuum region

(2) far region

(3) fingerprint region

(4) Large region

27. In spectrophotometers the intensity of transmitted light is determined by

(1) photoelectric cell

(2) tungsten  lamp

(3) monochromator

( 4) amplifier

28. In electrogravimetric methods platinum el;ectrodes are generally used because

(1) they are relatively reactive

(2) band lines

(3) line reversal

(4) discreate spectral lines

29. Which is made up of a series of closely spaced lines and is due to molecular spcies in the vapour state?

(1) Line apectra

(2) band spectra

(3) Emission spectra

(4) Abosorption spectra

30. An indifferent electrolyte used in direct current polarography means

(1) Which neither conducts current nor reacts with material under investigation and electrode

(2) Which conducts current but does not react with electrode and material

(3) The dimension of the capillary and pressure of dropping mercury

(4) All of the above

31. The diffusion current is proportional to

(1) Decomposition potential

(2) Residual current

(3) Concentration of electrolytic solution

(4) Concentration of electro-active material present in the solution

32. In Amphometric titration of an iodide solution with merury (II) nitrate solution, the magnitude of the anodic diffusion current

(1) Decreses upto the end point

(2) till all the active material is reduced

(3) increases as the titration proceeds

(4) reaches top its maximum

33. In stripping voltammetry the rate of amalgam is governed by the

(1) magnitude of the current flowing

(2) concentration of reducible ions

(3) rate at which the travel to the electrode

(4) All of the above

34. The instruments required for the following techniques are closely related to microcopy:

(1) Electron diffraction

(2) X-ray projection microscopy

(3) X-ray microprobe analyzer

(4) All of the above

35. In electrogravimetry good metallic deposits are

(1) Spongy

(2) Fine grained

(3) Powdery

(4) Flaky

36. Cyclohexanone exhibits only________ peaks in its 13C NMR spectrum due to symmetry.

(1) Two

(2) Four

(3) Three

(4) Five

37. In flame emission, the intensity of emission is critically dependent upon

(1) the rate at which the sample is introduced

(2) the nature if the sample

(3) The state of the sample

(4) None of the above

38. In cyclic voltammetry, a cyclic voltammogram for a chemically reversible system shows

(1) equal peak heights for reduction and oxidation processes

(2) unequal peak heights for reduction and oxidation processes

(3) No peak heights

(4) Brother peaks

39. Amperometric titrations cannot be carried out at potentials more negative than 2 volts since

(1) Nitrogen is evolved

(2) Hydrogen is evolved

(3) Oxygen is evolved

(4) None is evolved

40. The GLC is limited to

(1) Non-polar materials

(2) Polar materials

(3) Volatile materials

(4) Non-volatile materials

41. In Raman spectra the middle line is called as

(1) Raman lines

(2) Functional group lines

(3) Rayleigh lines

(4) Peak lines

42. If an organic compound does not absorb UV-visible radiation, it means that compound does not contain.

(1) Single bond

(2) Sigma bond

(3) Conjugated double bond

(4) Dative bond

43. The liquid mixtures, having distillation with a change in composition are called as

(1) non-epuilibrium mixtures

(2) azeotropic mixtures

(3) zeotropic mixtures

(4) fractional distillation

44. Paper treated with silicone or paraffin oil permits________paper chromatography.

(1) reversed phase

(2) Chemical phase

(3) Physical phase

(4) normal phase

45. The Raman shift depends upon

(1) frequency of the incident light

(2) frequency of the scattered light

(3) frequency of the Raman lines

(4) None of the above

46. The characteristics of lines observed in Raman effect is

(1) The intensity of Stokes line is always greater than the corresponding anti-Stokes lines

(2) Raman shift lies within the far and near IR regions of the spectrum

(3) They are symmetrically displaced about the parent lines

(4) All the above

47. Intensity of Raman peak depends upon

(1) Polari ability of the molecule

(2) Intensity of the source

(3) Concentration of the active group

(4) All of the above

48. The efficiency of fractionating column of distillation is expressed in terms of HETP and usually stated in

(1) mm

(2) cm²

(3) cm

(4) m³

49. In chromatography, the tario of distance travelled by the substance and standard substance from the origin expressed in terms of

(1) R_M

(2) R_F

(3) R_X

(4) R_S

50. Generally a solvent mixture selected as paper developing solvent which can give RF value in the range of

(1) 0.2 – 0.8

(2) 0.0 – 0.5

(3) 0.01 – 0.05

(4) 0.02 -0.2

51. In two-component chromatogram of chromatography, separation can be improved by

(1) Increasing the rate of band separation

(2) decreasing the rate of band spreading

(3) overlapping of peaks

(4) All of the above

52. The time between sample injection and the appearance of detection of peak in chromatogram is sometimes called

(1) Retention time

(2) Migration time

(3) Dead time

(4) Distribution constant

53.In gas chromatography the detector widely used to detect halogenated compound is

(1) Flame ionization detector

(2) Electron capture detector

(3) Thermionic detector

(4) Photo ionization detector

54. The process of location analytes on a thin layer plate is often termed as

(1) Mobilization

(2) Visualization

(3) Normalization

(4) None of the above

55. Consider the following statements :

(a) Senior BJP leader Sumitra Mahajan has been chosen as the speaker of the Lok Sabha unanimously.

(b) Mahajan is the third woman aftex Vijayalaxmi Pandit and Meera Kumar to be elected as a speaker.

(c) Starting her political career at the age of 39, Mahajan became the deputy Mayor of Indore.

(d) Mahajan was a Minister of State in the Atal Bihari Vajpayee cabinet from 1999 to 2004.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (b)

56. Consider the following statements:

(a) Narendra Modi was sworn in as a Prime Minister as the head of a 55 member coalition Government.

(b) He became the 14~~ Prime Minister of India.

(c) Narendra Modi got Masters degree in Political Science from Gujarat University.

(d) Narendra Modi was the Chief Minister of Gujarat since October 1999.

Which of the above statements are True?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (c) only

57. Which of the following statements regarding Global Arms Trade Treaty is not correct?

(1) The treaty was passed by the UN General Assembly with 154 votes in favour and 3 against with 23 abstentions on April 2, 2013.

(2) The 3 nations voting against treaty were Iran, Syria and North Korea.

(3) U.S.A. and Russia were among the abstentions.

(4) The landmark treaty is the first ever aimed at limiting arms trade.

58. Gariphema village has been declared the country’s first ‘tobacco free village’ recently. This village is in________ state.

(1) Kerala

(2) Manipur

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Nagaland

59. Consider the following statements:

(a) The Modi Government has constituted Special Investigation Team (SIT) to unearth black money in the first meeting of cabinet.

(b) Retired Supreme Court judge Ash& Kumar Mathur is the head of the SIT.

(c) Former Supreme Court judge M.B. Shah is the Vice-Chairman of the panel

Which of the statements given above is/are False?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (b) and (c)

60. Who is Anshu Jamsenpa ?

(a) Woman Mountaineer from Himachal kadesh.

(b) Scripts history by scaling three Himalayan Peaks.

(c) Scaled Mount Everest twice becoming the first mother in the world to do so.

(d) Was felicitated by Nepal Government.

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct, (d) false

(2) (b) and (c) correct, (a) and (d) false

(3) (b), (c) and (d) correct, (a) false

(4) All are correct

61. Which of the following statements is not about the ‘Western Ghats’ ?

(1) UNESCO declared it to be a ‘World Heritagef site.

(2) It is one of the ‘hottest biodiversity hotspots’ of biological diversity in the world.

(3) The Western Ghats span six states of India.

(4) ‘Kalasubai’ peak is the highest peak of Western Ghats.

62. In the given series one number is wrong. Find it:

14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386

(1) 26

(2) 48

(3) 98

(4) 194

63. In________Chromatography analyte species are absorbed into the surface of a polar packing

(1) Absorption

(2) Adsorption

(3) ion-exchange

(4) paper

64. thin layer chromatography is based on

(1) absorption

(2) adsorption

(3) solubility

(4) fractional distillation

65. In a mass spectrometer an organic compound is bombarded with electrons of about ____ energy.

(1) 65 eV

(2) 70 eV

(3) 75 eV

(4) 60 eV

66. Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM) provides morphologic and topographic information about.

(1) The surface of liquid

(2) The surface of solid

(3) The surface of gas

(4) None of the above

67. In a row of six persons, D and C are immediate neighbours of E. B is a neighbour of A only. A is fourth from F. Who are at the two end points?

(1) F and B

(2) B and D

(3) C and A

(4) F and C

68. In paper chromatography stationary phase and mobile phase are

(1) number of bulbs in the column

(2) length of the column

(3) width of the column

(4) All of the above

69. In paper chromatography stationary phase and mobile phase are

(1) liquid – liquid

(2) liquid- solid

(3) liquid – gas

(4) solid – gas

70. Separation of proteins by is electric focusing technique depends on which of the following factors?

(1) Charge

(2) PI

(3) Size

(4) Solubility

71. What did the partition of Bengal in 1905 did not seek?

(a) Separation of Bihar and parts of Orissa from Bengal.

(b) Creation of a new province of Eastern Bengal and Assam.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

72. If hill co- efficient of an enzyme is found to be 1.0, the enzyme manifests

(1) Positive substrate cooperativety

(2) negative substrate cooperativity

(3) both types of substrate cooperativity

(4) no cooperativity

73. Display of the National Flag is governed by the provision of :

(1) The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act 1950.

(2) The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act 1971.

(3) Both (1) and (2) above

(4) Neither (1) nor (2) above

74. Which one of the following points was not among the ‘Fourteen Points’, proposed by Mr. MA Jinnah?

(1) The form of the future constitution should be federal

(2) A uniform measure of autonomy to all provinces.

(3) Sindh should be separated from Bombay Presidency.

(4) Half of the cenbal and provncial cabinet ministers should be Muslims.

75.Which one of the following statements is not correct about the re-organisation of the states or alteration of their boundaries ?

(1) Parliament is entrusted with the power.

(2) The parliament can enact such a law by a simple majority.

(3) President has to ‘ascertain’ the views of the legislatures of the concerned states before recommending the bill.

(4) Consent of the concerned states is required for altering the boundaries.

76. Identify the odd one out !

Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith, Worship, Social

Answer options:

(1) Thought

(2) Faith

(3) Worship

(4) Social

77. Under section 12 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 who amongst the following is not mentioned as a part of committee to recommend, the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner.

(1) Prime Minister

(2) Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

(3) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(4) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by Prime Minister

78. A positive Seliwanoff’s test is obtained with

(1) Glucose

(2) Fructose

(3) Galactose

(4) Mannose

79. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is useful for

(1) cutting DNA into fragments

(2) creating recombinant plasmids

(3) analyzing person’s fingerprinting

(4) making many copies of DNA

80. Age and rancidity of oil can be determined by method of

(1) Iodine number

(2) Benedict test

(3) Acid value

(4) Salkowski test