Maharashtra Forest Development Corporation Question Paper Download Set 1

1. Which one of the following options cannot be included in the concept of watershed development?

(1) Construction of major dams

(2) Optimal management of land water resources

(3) Socio-economic and institutional development

(4) Biodiversity protection

 

Ans:-  (1) Construction of major dams

 

2. Delineation of a watershed is an exercise of

(1) Area wise delineation

(2) Land use wise delineation

(3) Topographically drainage stream wise delineation

(4) None of the above

 

Ans:-  (1) Area wise delineation

 

3. Out of different biological measures used to control erosion in a watershed, which one of the following is not a biological measure?

(1) Contour strip cropping

(2) Mixed cropping

(3) Buffer strip cropping

(4) Field strip cropping

 

Ans:- (4) Field strip cropping

 

4. Which of the following types of farm ponds should be selected where ground water table rise is within a few metres from the ground surface?

(1) Embankment type

(2) Dugout type

(3) Polythene lined dugout type

(4) Cement concrete lined embankment type

 

Ans:-  (1) Embankment type

 

5. Which one of the following options is not a geomorphological characteristic of a watershed?

• Total area of watershed

(2) Circulatory ratio

(3) Form factor

(4) Compaction factor

 

Ans:– (2) Circulatory ratio

 

6. Triangular V-notch (90⁰ triangular weir) is a simple flow measuring instrument used for evaluation of watershed development programme.

Which is the discharge formula for this instrument?

(1) Q = 0.0138 H^3/2

(2) Q = 0.0184 H^3/2

(3) Q = 0.0138 LH^3/2

(4) Q = 0.0138 H^5/2

Ans:-  (2) Q = 0.0184 H^3/2

 

7. For land use planning, land capability classification maps are prepared. Which type of land capability class the area demarked with green colour represent ?

(1) Class I

(2) Class II

(3) Class VI

(4) Class VIII

 

Ans:-  (2) Class II

 

8. The surface of a channel which is in contact with water is called

(1) Hydraulic radius

(2) Wetted perimeter

(3) Wetted area

(4) None of the above

 

Ans:-  (2) Wetted perimeter

 

9. The drainage density of any catchment/watershed varies inversely with the

(1) Area of the basin

(2) Length of the basin

(3) Width of the basin

(4) Average depth of the basin

 

Ans:- (3) Width of the basin

 

10. The type of flow in which the fluid characteristics like velocity, pressure, density, etc. at a point do not change with time, is called

(1) Steady flow

(2) Unsteady flow

(3) Uniform flow

(4) Non-uniform flow

 

Ans:-  (4) Non-uniform flow

 

11. q = k_dH^x

Where

q = emitter flow rate in lph

H = working pressure head at emitter, m

k = discharge coefficient

x = emitter discharge exponent

In this equation, the lower value of ‘x’ denotes

(1) The discharge will be less affected by variations in pressure

(2) The discharge will be more affected by variations in pressure

(3) There will not be any influence of variations in pressure on discharge

(4) None of the above

 

Ans:-  (3) There will not be any influence of variations in pressure on discharge

12. The typical characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump show the relationship amongst
13. Discharge
14. Total head
15. Brake horse power
16. Efficiency

Answer options :

(1) a, b and c

(3) b, c and d

(2) a, band d

(4) a, b, c and d

 

Ans:-  (3) b, c and d

 

13. A canal aligned at right angles to the contours is a

(1) Watershed canal

(2) Contour canal

(3) Side slope carial

(4) Distributary canal

 

Ans:-  (3) Side slope carial

 

14. The criteria for judging the performance of outlets or modules are
15. Flexibility
16. Proportionality
17. sensitivity
18. Uniformity
19. Setting

Answer options :

(1) a, b, c and d only

(2) a, b, c and e only

(3) a, b, d and e only

(4) b, c, d and e only

 

Ans:- Update Soon

 

15. The bedding system of surface drainage is mostly used for
16. Flat soils
17. Steep slopy soils
18. Poorly drained soils with low permeability
19. Sandy soils with high permeability

Answer options :

(1) a and b only

(2) c and d only

(3) a and c only

(4) b and d only

 

Ans:- (1) a and b only

 

16. Cover material is applied to pipe drains
17. to facilitate water flow into the drain.
18. to prevent the entry of soil particles into the drain.

 

Answer options :

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) None of the above

 

Ans:-  (4) None of the above

 

17. A 36 hectare catchment area having a drainage coefficient of 2.40 cm, will yield a discharge of

(1) 100 lit/sec

(2) 10 lit/sec

(3) 10 m3/hr

(4) 0.01 m3/sec

 

Ans:-  (1) 100 lit/sec

 

18. Which one of the following formulae is used to design drain spacing under unsteady state condition ?

(1) Dupit-Forchheimer

(2) Ernst

(3) Hooghoudt

(4) Glover-Dumm

 

Ans:-  (3) Hooghoudt

 

19. Which of the following operations requires moving large quantities of earth over considerable distances ?
20. Rough grading
21. Land levelling
22. Land smoothening
23. Land planning

Answer options :

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b only

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:-  (4) All of the above

 

20. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Specific yield + Specific retention = Porosity

(2) Specific retention – Specific yield = Porosity

(3) Porosity + Specific yield = Specific retention

(4) Porosity + Specific retention = Specific yield

 

Ans:-  (3) Porosity + Specific yield = Specific retention

 

21. The recommended safe limits of land slope (longitudinal slope, %) for efficient irrigation for heavy clay soils is

(1) 0.05 to 0.20

(2) 0.25 to 0.65

(3) 0.65 to 1.00

(4) 0.20 to 0.40

 

Ans:-  (4) 0.20 to 0.40

 

22. High speed engines have engine speed__________rpm.

(1) Less than 350

(2) 350- 750

(3) 750- 1000

(4) Greater than 1000

 

Ans:-  (2) 350- 750

 

23. An engine is considered to be better, when it produces the highest crankshaft torque at

(1) Rated engine speed

(2) Maximum power

(3) Less than rated engine speed

(4) More than rated engine speed

 

Ans:-  (1) Rated engine speed

 

24. The compression ratio of diesel engines are in the order of

(1) 4 to 8:1

(2) 8 to 14 : 1

(3) 14 to 20 : 1

(4) 1 to 4 : 1

 

Ans:-  (2) 8 to 14 : 1

 

25. The fuel which should be used for easy starting of an engine in cold weather is

(1) Diesel

(2) Kerosene

(3) Methanol

(4) Petrol

 

Ans:-  (4) Petrol

 

26. The power developed by an average pair of bullocks is about

(1) 7500 watts

(2) 750 watts

(3) 75000 watts

(4) 75 watts

 

Ans:-  (1) 7500 watts

 

27. A cold spark plug has

(1) A short insulator

(3) Small threads

(2) A long insulator

(4) Big threads

 

Ans:- (1) A short insulator

28. The drawbar power output is always less than the Power Take-Off (FTO) output because of_______in the drive train between the engine and the wheels.

(1) Drive wheel slippage

(2) Tractor rolling resistance

(3) Friction losses

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:- (3) Friction losses

 

29. The component parts of a single drop steering system consists of the following parts :
30. Radius rod, drag link and steering wheel
31. Drop arm, drag link and tie rod
32. Radius rod, tie rod and drop arm
33. Drag link, radius rod and drop arm

Which of the above statements is/are true ?

(1) a, c and d only

(2) a only

(3) b only

(4) c only

 

Ans:-  (4) c only

 

30. A gear reduction unit between differential and drive wheels of a tractor is referred to as

(1) Final drive

(2) Gear unit

(3) Ultimate power system

(4) None of the above

 

Ans:-  (3) Ultimate power system

 

31. When the tractor is taking a turn, the inner and outer wheels should

(1) Rotate at the same speed

(2) Rotate at slower and faster speeds respectively

(3) Rotate at faster and slower speeds respectively

(4) Rotate at any speed

 

Ans:- (1) Rotate at the same speed

 

32. Which type/s of dynamometer/s has/have to absorb energy to measure PTO power of the tractor?
33. Prony brake
34. Hydraulic
35. Electrical generator
36. Eddy current

Answer options :

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, b and d only

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:- (2) a and b only

33. __________ are the useful devices used for levelling which are fabricated by village artisans.
34. Buck scraper
35. Float
36. Planks
37. Bund former

Answer options :

(1) a and b only

(2) a, band d

(3) a only

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:- (2) a, band d

 

 

34. An implement that is fully supported by the tractor is

(1) Trailed implement

(2) Mounted implement

(3) Semi-mounted implement

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:-  (3) Semi-mounted implement

 

35. To change the width of cut with a disc plough, the__________should be changed; usually__________is considered to be the optimum value.

(1) Disk angle, 40⁰ to 45⁰

(2) Tilt angle, 15⁰ to 25⁰

(3) Horizontal suction, 6 to 12

(4) Vertical suction, 6 to 12

 

Ans:- (4) Vertical suction, 6 to 12

 

36. The point at which the resultant of all horizontal and vertical forces act on implement is known as

(1) Centre of pull

(2) Centre of power

(3) Centre of resistance

(4) Centre of hitch

 

Ans:-  (2) Centre of power

 

37. Depreciation is the reduction in the value of a machine caused by

(1) Wear

(2) Weathering and accidental damage

(3) Obsolescence or any other similar reasons

(4) All of the above

 

Ans:- (3) Obsolescence or any other similar reasons

 

38. __________is a precision drilling machine.

(1) Seed drill

(2) Planter

(3) Transplanted

(4) Tiphan

 

Ans:-  (2) Planter

 

39. In a sickle, the forged end of the blade for fixing the handle is called

(1) Ferrule

(2) Tang

(3) Frame

(4) Beam

 

Ans:-  (2) Tang

 

40. The seed drill should be calibrated for__________ before actually operating in the field.

(1) Placement of seeds at correct row-to-row spacing

(2) Placement of seeds at correct seed-to-seed spacing

(3) Correct seed rate

(4) Correct seed depth

 

Ans:-  (1) Placement of seeds at correct row-to-row spacing

 

41. ____________loss is the grain lost out the rear of combine in the form of unthreshed heads.

(1) Cutter bar

(2) Threshing

(3) Separating

4) Cleaning

 

Ans:- (2) Threshing

 

 

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