Jalna Zilla Parishad Set One Question Papers with Answer Key

1. Combined contraceptive pills give protection from the following EXCEPT:

(a) Cancer of ovary

(b) Cancer of endometrium

(c) Cancer of cervix

(d) Ectopic pregnancy

 

Ans:-  (c) Cancer of cervix

 

2. A woman presents with heavy foul smelling discharge with sharply demarcated ulcers without induration on the perineum and the labia majora. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is also present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

(a) Gonorrhoea

(b) Tuberculosis

(c) Chancroid

(d) Trichomoniasis

 

Ans:- (c) Chancroid

 

3. A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is :

(a) Kallman syndrome

(b) Asherman syndrome

(c) Anorexia nervosa

(d) Turner syndrome

 

Ans:- (b) Asherman syndrome

 

4. Which of the following tests is NOT used for diagnosing syphilis?

(a) Frie’s test

(b) Direct fluorescent antibody test

(c) FTA – ABS test

(d) TPHA

 

Ans:- (a) Frie’s test

 

5. Fitz‐Hugh‐Curtis syndrome involving per hepatitis is present in the following:

(a) Moniliasis

(b) Syphilis

(c) Tuberculosis

(d) Gonorrhoea

 

Ans:- (d) Gonorrhoea

 

6. Which of the following cause/causes bacterial vaginosis?
7. Gardnerella
8. Mycoplasma
9. Ureaplasma urealyticum

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:- (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

7. Where are antisperm antibodies usually present?

(a) Uterus

(b) Vagina

(c) Fallopian tube

(d) Cervix

 

Ans:- (d) Cervix

 

8. Modified Bishop’s score includes all EXCEPT:

(a) Cervical length and dilatation

(b) Consistency of cervix

(c) Position of os

(d) Position of occiput

 

Ans:- (d) Position of occiput

 

9. The engaging diameter of brow presentation is:

(a) Mento‐vertical

(b) Submento‐vertical

(c) Suboccipito‐bregmatic

(d) Submento‐bregmatic

 

Ans:- (a) Mento‐vertical

 

 

10. Intramuscular injection of iron dextran is given by ‘Z’ technique to :

(a) Alleviate the pain

(b) Decrease the incidence of infection

(c) Reduce the staining

(d) Increase the iron absorption

 

Ans:- (c) Reduce the staining

 

 

11. Which of the following is/are the risk factors for acute pelvic inflammatory disease in women?
12. Intercourse during menstruation
13. Multiple sex partners

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans:- (c) Both 1 and 2

 

 

12. The umbilical cord normally contains:

(a) Two arteries and two veins

(b) One artery and one vein

(c) Two arteries and one vein

(d) One artery and two veins

 

Ans:- (c) Two arteries and one vein

 

 

13. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?

(a) Grannloma inguinale

(b) Chancroid

(c) Lymphogranuloma venerum

(d) Herpes simplex

 

Ans:- (c) Lymphogranuloma venerum

 

 

14. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:

(a) Period of gestation 5 weeks

(b) β HCG level more than 10,000 IU

(c) Absent foetal cardiac activity

(d) Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.

 

Ans:- (b) β HCG level more than 10,000 IU

 

 

15. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT:

(a) Intrauterine foetal death

(b) Meconium stained liquor

(c) Preterm labour

(d) Neonatal jaundice

 

Ans:- (d) Neonatal jaundice

 

 

16. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?

(a) Human Papilloma Virus

(b) Trichomonas vaginalis

(c) Monilial vaginitis

(d) Bacterial vaginosis

 

Ans:- (d) Bacterial vaginosis

 

17. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Hyperemesis gravidarum

(b) Congenital malformations

(c) Pregnancy induced hypertension

(d) Post date pregnancy

 

Ans:- (d) Post date pregnancy

 

 

18. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?

(a) Simple hyperplasia

(b) Complex hyperplasia with atypia

(c) Simple atypical hyperplasia

(d) Complex hyperplasia

 

Ans:- (b) Complex hyperplasia with atypia

 

 

19. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:

(a) Ovarian malignancy

(b) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

(c) Endometrial carcinoma

(d) Fallopian tube malignancy

 

Ans:- (b) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

 

 

20. B‐Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage

(a) compresses the uterus

(b) ligates the uterine arteries

(c) ligates the utero‐ovarian anastomosis

(d) ligates the ovarian vessels

 

Ans:-  (a) compresses the uterus

 

 

21. Regarding ‘Delancy’s levels of vaginal support’, consider the following pairs:
22. Level I     ………. Supports distal urethra perineal body
23. Level II     ………. Supports mid‐vagina
24. Level III    ………. Supports apical defect

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:-  (b) 2 only

 

 

22. Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true?
23. These are always monozygotic
24. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed
25. Most common variety is thoracopagus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:- (c) 1 and 3 only

 

 

23. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBeAg positive but HBeAg negative is

(a) Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth

(b) Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age

(c) Only active immunisation soon after birth

(d) Only passive immunisation soon after birth

 

Ans:- (a) Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth

 

 

24. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:

Term                                            ….                                    Description

1. Early decelerations ….         Most common during labour and are due to cord compression
2. Late decelerations ….        Result due to any process leading to maternal hypotension, placental insufficiency

or excessive uterine activity

3. Variable decelerations ….        Are due to head compression leading to vagal   stimulation

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

 

Ans:- (d) 2 only

 

 

25. A 26 year old woman P₁L₁ reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is:

(a) VIA, VILI

(b) Colposcopy and directed biopsy

(c) LEEP

1. d) Conisation

 

Ans:- (b) Colposcopy and directed biopsy

 

 

26. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine stress urinary incontinence is:

(a) Kegel’s perineal exercises

(b) Kelly’s placation

(c) TVT‐O mid urethral tape

(d) Periurethral injection of bulking agents

 

Ans:- (c) TVT‐O mid urethral tape

 

 

27. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following statements:
28. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa
29. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre
30. In Mathew Duncan’s method, separation begins at margin

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:- (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

28. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is:

(a) Kleinfelter’s syndrome

(b) Androgen Insensitivity syndrome

(c) Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome

(d) Prader Willi syndrome

 

Ans:- (c) Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome

 

 

29. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to be firm. Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?

(a) B’ lynch suture

(b) Surgical repair of cervical tear

(c) Intramuscular prostaglandin

(d) Replacement of inverted uterus

 

Ans:- (b) Surgical repair of cervical tear

 

 

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of menstruation?
31. LH surge precedes ovulation
32. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in luteal phase 3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:- (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

31. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion?
32. Mode
33. Median
34. Standard Deviation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:- (b) 3 only

 

 

32. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention?
33. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood
34. Immunization of infants
35. Screening of cervical cancer

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans:- (a) 1 only

 

 

33. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast cancer is:

(a) Student’s paired‘t’ test

(b) Student’s unpaired  ‘t’ test

(c) Chi‐square test

(d) Wilcoxon’s signed rank test

 

Ans:-  (c) Chi‐square test

 

 

34. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT:

(a) Matching of variables such as age and sex

(b) Randomization during selection

(c) Stratification during analysis

(d) Increasing sample size for cases and controls

 

Ans:- (d) Increasing sample size for cases and controls

 

 

35. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological studies?

(a) Associated both with exposure and disease

(b) Distributed equally between study and control groups

(c) Independent risk factor for disease in question

(d) Source of bias is interpretation

 

Ans:- (b) Distributed equally between study and control groups

 

 

36. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is:

(a) Total number of deaths due to all causes

(b) Total number of hospital admissions

(c) Total number of cases due to the disease concerned

(d) Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned

 

Ans:- (c) Total number of cases due to the disease concerned

 

 

37. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a typical example for

(a) Common source, single exposure epidemic

(b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic

(c) Slow epidemic

(d) Propagated epidemic

 

Ans:- (b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic

 

38. An important measure of communicability of a disease is

(a)   Incidence rate

(b) Case fatality rate

(c) Prevalence rate

(d) Secondary attack rate

 

Ans:- (d) Secondary attack rate

 

 

39. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?

(a) Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases

(b) One of the measures related to virulence

(c) It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage

(d) Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent factors

 

Ans:- (a) Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases

 

 

40. Farmer’s lung is caused by the inhalation of:

(a) Grain dust with actinomycetes

(b) Sugarcane dust

(c) Silica dust

(d) Cotton fibre dust

 

Ans:-  (a) Grain dust with actinomycetes

 

 

41. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?

(a) Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme

(b) Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme

(c) National AIDS Control Programme

(d) Reproductive and Child Health Programme

 

Ans:- (c) National AIDS Control Programme

 

 

42. Mean + 2 S.D. contains

(a) 68.3 % values

(b) 91.2 % values

(c) 95.4 % values

(d) 99.7 % values

 

Ans:- (c) 95.4 % values

 

 

43. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per:

(a) 1000 pregnancies

(b) 1000 live births

(c) 1000 under five children

(d) 100,000 live births

 

Ans:-  (b) 1000 live births

 

 

44. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?

(a) Phosphatase test

(b) Standard Plate count

(c) Coliform count

(d) Orthotoludine test

 

Ans:-  (d) Orthotoludine test

 

 

45. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?

(a) Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value

(b) Time, place and person distribution

(c) Agent, host and environmental factors

(d) Prevalence, incidence and attack rate

 

Ans:-  (c) Agent, host and environmental factors

 

 

46. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?
47. Designing of equipment and tools
48. Human efficiency
49. Layout of place of work
50. Reduction in industrial accidents

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Ans:-  (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

 

47. The risk of disease is measured by

• Prevalence Rate
• Incidence Rate
• Attrition Rate
• Fatality Rate

 

         Ans:-  (b)  Incidence Rate

 

48. Tetanus spores can only be killed by

(a) Large doses of penicillin

(b) Anti tetanus Serum

(c) Tetanus toxoid

(d) Gamma irradiation

 

Ans:-  (d) Gamma irradiation

 

 

49. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of  anemia?
50. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl
51. Haemoglobin for adult non‐pregnant female is 12 g/dl
52. Haemoglobin for adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl
53. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1, 2, 3 and 4

(c)  2 and 4 only

(d)  1 and 3 only

 

Ans:- (b)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

 

50. Health functionary at PHC level is:

(a)   ASHA

(b) Anganwadi Worker

(c) Health Assistant (Female)

(d) Health Worker (Female)

 

Ans:-  (c) Health Assistant (Female)