MPSC State Service Main Examination – 2018 Paper 6

MPSC State Service Main Examination – 2018 Paper 6

  1. Which of the following is favourable effect of Co-operative movement?

(a) Emergence of rural leadership

(b) Collection of savings

(c) Rural industrialization

Choose correct options:

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) Only (a) and (c)

  1. Pandit Nehru’s vision of the New India was described as:

(1) Principle of capitalism

(2) Principle of socialism

(3) Principle of military rule

(4) Principle of democratic socialism

  1. To reduce the interference of government and political factors in co-operative sector the central Government suggested to implement 97th constitutional amendment from _____________ .

(1) 2 October 2011

(2) 15 February 2012

(3) 26 January 2013

(4) 14 April 2014

  1. Consider the following statements regarding Co-operative movement in Maharashtra.

(a) The Co-operative Movement in Maharashtra started in 1910 with the establishment of primary agricultural credit societies.

(b) The First Sugar Co-operative, Pravara was established in 1960 in Ahmednagar district.

(c) Mahananda dairy was established in 1989.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Which of the following National level co-operative apex institution works for agricultural marketing?

(1) National Co-operative Development Corporation (NCDC).

(2) Co-operative Marketing Agency.

(3) National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation (NAFED).

(4) Dairy Development Board (DDB).

  1. The structural adjustment programme adopted by the Government consists of the following measures.

(a) Trade and capital flows reform

(b) Control of inflation

(c) Financial sector reform

(d) Improving the balance of payment position

Which of the measure/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. Quality of employment in the economy can be assessed by which of the following factor/ factors?

(a) Wages received by the workers.

(b) Share of workers in organised and unorganised sector.

(c) Distribution of work opportunities among primary, secondary and tertiary sector.

(d) Productivity of workers based on their level of skill and education.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) factors

(2) (a), (c) and (d) factors

(3) All above factors

(4) (b), (c) and (d) factors

  1. Which of the following is 100% centrally sponsored scheme for rural electrification, since 2015?

(1) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(2) Ujjwal Discom Assurance Scheme

(3) Din Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana

(4) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

  1. In the context of New Trade Policy of India which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(a) The period after 1991 has been marked by substantial liberalisation of trade policy.

(b) In line with India’s Commitment to WTO, quantitative restrictions on all import items have been withdrawn.

Answer options:

(1) (a) Only

(2)(b) Only

(3) Both

(4) None of the above

  1. Which of the following group of states in India has inland water transport?

(1) Assam, West Bengal, Bihar

(2) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

(3) Andhra Pradesh, ‘Orissa, Gujarat

(4) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra

  1. ‘Co-operation among Co-operatives’ this principle of co-operation is known as _________.

(1) Principle of Thrift

(2) Principle of Members’ Economic Participation

(3) .Principle of Growth

(4) All of the above

  1. Consider the following statements.

(a) National Small Industries Corporation was setup in 1955.

(b) The main objective was to provide machinery to small scale units.

(c) The programme of District Industries centre was introduced in May 1979.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (c)

  1. Textile and Food processing industry cluster is concentrated in which of the following MIDC clusters of Maharashtra?

(1) Mumbai and Thane

(2) Mumbai and Nashik

(3) SoIapur and Nagpur

(4) Pune and Ahmednagar

  1. Which are the parameters of globalization?

(a) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services among nation – states.

(b) Creation of environment in which free flow of capital can take place among nation – states.

(c) Creation of environment permitting free flow of technology.

(d) Creation of environment in which free movement of labour can take place in different countries of the world.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) Only (a), (b), (c)

  1. Match the following:

       Subsidies                                   Effects on farmers

(a) Amber box subsidies         (i) Direct payments to the farmers

(b) Red box subsidies              (ii) Banned outright

(c) Blue box subsidies             (iii) Not banned

(d) Green box subsidies          (iv) Minimal impact on trade

Answer options:

          (a)    (b)    (c)     (d)

   (1)   (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)

(2)   (ii)   (iii)     (i)    (iv)

(3)  (iii)   (ii)      (i)     (iv)

(4)  (iv)    (i)      (ii)    (iii)

  1. In 2017 which were the industries reserved for Public Sector?

(a) Arms and Ammunition

(b) Atomic Energy

(c) Mineral Oils

(d) Railway Operations

Answer options:

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (c) and (d)

(3) Only (a) and (c)

(4) Only (b) and (d)

  1. Which employment scheme/programme in India gave recognition to the ‘Right to work’ enshrined in the constitution, first ?

(1) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)

(2) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

(3) Employment Guarantee Scheme of Maharashtra (EGS)

(4) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)

  1. What is MAITRI?

(1) Govt. of Maharashtra’s Innovation Technology Restructuring scheme regarding industries.

(2) Govt, of Maharashtra’s contract regarding industries.

(3) Govt. of Maharashtra’s Industry, Trade and Investment Facilitations Cell.

(4) Computer Software for industries.

  1. In which of the areas markets fail and Govt, intervention becomes important?

(a) Monopoly and goods prices.

(b) Provision of public goods for economically backward.

(c) Infrastructural facilities like irrigation, roads and railways etc.

(d) Imperfect market competition.

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) None of the above

(4) All of the above

  1. An important objective of (MEDA) Maharashtra Energy Development Agency is reflected in which of the following?

(1) Propagation and promotion of renewable energy

(2) Installation of thermal power centers

(3) Improvement in urban power supply

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following clauses are a part of WTO agreement?

(a) Trade and environmental issues.

(b) Trade and intellectual property rights.

(c) Trade and tariffs.

(d) Trade and infrastructural facilities.

Choose correct options:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) All above

  1. Privatization implies following things:

(a) Transfer of control of ownership from the private sector to the public sector.

(b) Transfer of control of ownership from public sector to private sector.

(c) Providing more autonomy to the public sector.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) only (b)

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

  1. Which of the following was launched in April 2015 to fund and promote micro-finance institutions, which would in turn provide loans to small industrial sector?

(1) MFI


(3) NMPC


  1. According to census 2011, which of the states crossed the limit of population of 10 (Ten) crores?

(1) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(2) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala

(3) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Maharashtra

(4) Bihar, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh

  1. Which of the following companies is not an Indian Multinational Company?

(1) Asian paints

(2) Bharat Forge

(3) Essel Propack

(4) Philips

  1. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Telecommunication Sector.

(a) Government of India started new Telecom Policy in 1999.

(b) BSNL and MTNL have launched ‘The India Plan’ from March 2006.

(c) BSNL was set up in Oct. 2001.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to economic reforms in India.

(a) Libralisation shows the direction of reform in India.

(b) Privatisation shows the path of reforms in India.

(c) Globalisation shows the ultimate goal of the reforms in India.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is the most important objdve of Radhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana ?

(1) To provide central funds to construct roads in rural areas.

(2) To connect rural roads to national highways.

(3) To provide all weather road connectivity to unconnected rural areas with a population of 500 and above.

(4) To provide all weather road connectivity to unconnected rural areas with a tribal population of 100 and above.

  1. Which is/are an important function/s of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?

(a) To increase global monetary cooperation

(b) To create global financial stability

(c) To develop infrastructural facilities

(d) To facilitate global trade

Choose correct option:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c), (d) and (a)

  1. Which of the following facilities is not applicable for SEZ?

(a) Exemption from goods and service tax to industrial units.

(b) 100% exemption for industrial units on export income for first five years.

(c) Duty free import of goods for development of industrial unit.

(d) 100% exemption for advertising, marketing and transportation of goods.

Answer options:

(1) Only (b) and (c)

(2) only (c)

(3) Only (d)

(4) only (a) and (b)

  1. Which year did the Maharashtra government announce the Bio-technology Policy?

(1) 1999

(2) 2002

(3) 2001

(4) 2003

  1. Which of the following statements regarding deficit in budget is not true?

(1) Revenue deficit is a difference between revenue expenditure and current revenue of the government.

(2) Primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payment.

(3) Fiscal deficit is a difference between total government expenditure and total government revenue including grants.

(4) Primary deficit reflects total resource gap for the government.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Estate Duty was first introduced in India in 1953.

(b) An Annual tax on wealth was first introduced UI May 1957.

(c) Wealth tax has been a major source of revenue.

(d) A Gift tax was first introduced in 1958.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (d)

  1. The Planning Commission submission about the Poverty Measures to the Supreme Court, 2011 is as below:

(a) Anyone with daily expense below Rs. 32 in urban areas, below Rs.26 in rural areas.

(b) Anyone with daily expense below Rs. 20 in urban areas, below Rs. 12 in rural areas.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) Only (a)

(3) Only (b)

(4) None of these

  1. Consider the following two statements:

Statement (I): Business services including IT sector has been the fastest growing sector.

Statement (II): Share of service sector in Indian total employment is very high.

Select the correct option.

(1) Statement (II) is correct and (I) is incorrect.

(2) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.

(3) Both Statements are incorrect.

(4) Both Statements are correct.

  1. Consider the following statements in the context of Keynesian theory of income and employment:

Statement (I): In case of recession, fiscal policy proves to be more effective than monetary policy.

Statement (II): To raise level of employment, it is desirable to reduce taxes.

Select the correct option from below.

(1) Statement (I) is correct and Statement (II) is not correct.

(2) Statement (II) is correct and Statement (I) is not correct.

(3) Both Statements are not correct.

(4) Both Statements are correct.

  1. How much taxes of central and states government have been reduced due to the implementation of the goods and service tax in India since 1st July, 2017?

(1) Central – 6 and states – 11 Taxes

(2) Central – 7 and States – 9 Taxes

(3) Central – 8 and States – 9 Taxes

(4) Central – 9 and States – 8 Taxes

  1. Match the following:

          Tax                     Characteristic

(a) Estate Duty       (i) Abolished from 1985

(b) Wealth Tax       (ii) Introduced by Kaldor

(c) Ad valorem Tax (iii) L.K. Jha Committee

(d) Service Tax        (iv) Introduced in 1994-95

Answer options:

(a)   (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (ii)  (iii) (iv)  (i)

(2)  (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv)  (i)   (ii)

(4) (iv) .(i)   (ii) (iii)

  1. What are the objectives of establishing government public debt fund?

(1) Save the economy from crisis

(2) Principle and interest installments should be paid in time

(3) Neither (1) or (2)

(4) Above (1) and (2)

  1. Consider the following functions of money:

(a) Medium of Exchange

(b) Measure of Value

(c) Store of Goods and Services

(d) Standard of Deferred Payment

Which of the function/s given above is/are incorrect?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) Only (d)

(4) Only (c)

  1. Match the following:

                      A                                                    B

(Agriculture University)                      (Research Areas)

(a) Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth  (i) Horticulture Crops

(b) Punjabrao Deshmukh Krishi Vidyapeeth  (ii) Pulses and Oilseeds

(c) Kokan Krishi Vidyapeeth           (iii) Sugarcane and Jawar

Answer options:

       (a)    (b)    (c)

(1)  (iii)    (ii)    (i)

(2)   (i)    (ii)     (iii)

(3)  (ii)    (iii)     (i)

(4)   (iii)   (i)      (ii)

  1. As of March 2016, which of the following regions of Maharashtra has the highest number of co-operative societies ?

(1) Aurangabad Region

(2) Nagpur Region

(3) Pune Region

(4) Konkan Region

  1. How many calories is needed to ‘be included in poverty line?

(1) Only 2300 calories from diet

(2) More than 2500 calories from diet

(3) Less than 2400 calories from diet

(4) Only 2600 calories from diet

  1. When did Disinvestment Commission was established under the Chairmanship of C. Rangarajan by government of India ?

(1) 1990

(2) 1991

(3) 1992

(4) 1993

  1. Following statements related to deficit financing :

(a) It is best used during inflation to stimulate effective demand.

(b) It implies the transfer of money from public or banks to Central Bank of a country.

(c) It is a measure of fiscal policy to meet deficit on the current account of country’s budget.

(d) It is used to fight depression but it cannot be used effectively to finance economic development.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) All of the above

(2) None of the above

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. In the context of economic reforms in industrial sector of India, which of the following cannot be attributed to ‘New Industrial Policy-1991’?

(a) Role of public sector diluted.

(b) MRTP Act was abolished.

(c) SEZ’s were encouraged.

(d) SIDBI was set up for small scale industries.

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (c) and (d)

  1. Which of the following statement is hue in case of credit control measures of the RBI ?

(1) Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to the commercial banks.

(2) Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends to the commercial banks.

(3) Repo rate is the measure of absorbing liquidity.

(4) Reverse Repo rate is the measure of injecting liquidity.

  1. Name the economist who mentioned division of public goods in “Public Goods and Merit Goods”?

(1) John Dalton

(2) Findly Shiras

(3) Misses Ursula Hicks

(4) Prof. MasGrav

  1. Currency issued by the RBI is called as ‘High Power Money’ because of which of the following reasons?

(1) It is backed by supporting reserves.

(2) Ifs value is guaranteed by the government.

(3) It is the liability of RBI and the government.

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is not included in the three-dimensional perspective adopted by the Indian Government for the eradication of poverty ?

(1) Provision of minimum basic facilities

(2) Poverty eradication program

(3) Growth Oriented Approach

(4) Approaches of poor subsidies

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) A major part of unemployment in the developed countries is of cyclical nature.

(b) A major cause of unemployment in developing countries is deficiency of capital stock.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Which of the following statements are hue for the usual status unemployment concept developed by NSSO ?

(a) It indicates chronic unemployment.

(b) It is an yearly concept.

(c) It is a person rate.

(d) It is a time rate.

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a). ( b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

  1. Who stated ‘The Law of Increases in state activities’ ?

(1) Dr. DaIton

(2) Ursula Hicks

(3) Wagnor

(4) Dimarko

  1. As far as the contribution of service sector to Maharashtra’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is concerned, which of the following sector is contributing highest (in 2016-17)?

(1) Railways

(2) Financial services

(3) Real estates, ownership of dwellings and professional services

(4) Public Administration and Defence

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) The Kishori Shakti Yojana aims at improving the nutritional and health status of women and their self development.

(b) The Rashtriya Mahila Kosh provides large credits.

(c) Swavalamban Scheme provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. As per the recent statistics, which of the following had the highest geographical area under cultivation during Kharip Season (2016-17) in Maharashtra ?

(1) Cereals

(2) Pulses

(3) Oilseeds

(4) Fruits

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) Since 2014 only two industrial sectors are reserved for public sector.

(b) Presently no item is reserved for exclusive manufacturing by Micro and Small Enterprises Sector.

(c) Since 2014 private investment in rail infrastructure has been permitted.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. Adam Smith has stated ______ principle of taxation.

(1) Canon of Productivity

(2) Canon of Elasticity

(3) Canon of Diversity

(4) Canon of Equality

  1. Adolph Wagner’s name is associated with which of the following factor ?

(1) Balanced Budget

(2) Deficit Financing

(3) Canons of Taxation

(4) Increasing Public Expenditure

  1. Savitribai Phule Kanya Kalyan Yojana was revised in 2007. Which of the following was its main objective ?

(1) To promote female literacy.

(2) To promote women entrepreneurship.

(3) To promote women employment.

(4) To promote couples to accept sterilisation only on one or two daughters.

  1. Which state has started ‘Antyodaya Programme’ in India in 1977-78 ?

(1) Maharashtra

(2) Gujarat

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Rajasthan

  1. Money Multiplier means __________.

(1) Relation between demand of money and supply of money

(2) Relation between market price and quantity of money

(3) Ratio between supply of money and stock of base money

(4) Ratio between capacity of economy and quantity of money

  1. Which of the following fiscal measures will be effective for controlling the inflationary condition ?

(1) Increase in government expenditure

(2) Increase in public debt

(3) Increase in the tax rate

(4) Increase in cash reserve ratio

  1. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Tax means only for source of income.

(b) Tax is mandatory payment.

Answer options:

(1) (a) is correct.

(2) ( b) is correct.

(3) (a) and (b) are correct.

(4) None of the above are correct.

  1. The Domestic Capital is inadequate for the economic deveIopment of India, the need for foreign capital does not have to achieve any of the following goals:

(1) Supplies of Savings

(2) Foreign Exchange

(3) Government Revenue

(4) Disinvestment

  1. By which ways agricultural sector provides funds for capital formation ?

(a) Agriculture Taxation

(b) Export of Agricultural Products

Answer options:

(1) Only(a)

(2) only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) or (b)

  1. For revival of agriculture National Commission on Farmers suggested following plans :

(a) Debt waiver for all farmers

(b) Soil health enhancement

(c) Efficient use of water

(d) Credit reforms

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c)  and (d)

(4) (a)

  1. Green Revolution is the result of _____ .

(a) High Yielding Variety seeds

(b) Indebtness of farmer

(c) Minimum support prices

(d) Irrigation

Answer options:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

  1. What are the changes m the analysis of the theory of population transition in different phases of economic development?

(1) Birth rate and death rate are both very high.

(2) There is an increase m the income of the people due to economic development.

(3) The agricultural economy is converted Into an industrial economy.

(4) All of the above.

  1. In the year 2013-14 Maharashtra experienced rapid economic development but experienced that agriculture has _______.

(a) Decline in the contribution of agricultural sector

(b) Stagnation of population depending on agriculture

(c) Increase in the contribution of agriculture sector

(d) Increase in population depending on agriculture

Answer options:

(1)’ (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (c) only

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) India is the second largest fish producer country in the world.

(b) India is contributing 10% of global fish production.

(c) Blue Revolution is an umbrella scheme for growth of fisheries and aqua-culture in the country.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme is launched for :

(a) Completion of imcompleted irrigation schemes

(b) Completion of new schemes in short period

(c) Irrigation for social benefits

(d) Irrigation imbalance reduction

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and (b)

(3) Only (a), (c) and (d)

(4) Only (c) and (d)

  1. “International Trade as an Engine of Growth”, because ________.

(a) A strategy for sustainable national development

(b) Increasing of trade in developing countries

(c) Increase in the participation of developing countries in Multilateral trade system

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) MY (a) and (b)

(4) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is not a “Biotic Resource” in India ?

(1) Forestry

(2) Fish

(3) Coal and Oil

(4) Metallic Minerals

  1. _________ theory demonstrates that countries can gain from trade even if one of them is less productive than another in all goods that it produces.

(1) Ricardo

(2) Adam Smith

(3) William Petty

(4) Keynes

  1. Which of the following economists propounded “Absolute Cost Advantage Theory” of international bade ?

(1) Haberler

(2) Heckscher Ohlin

(3) Adam Smith

(4) J.M. Keynes

  1. Which of the following statements is true about High Yielding Variety (HW) programme of 1966?

(1) It was restricted only to food grains

(2) It was implemented all over India

(3) Use of pesticides and insecticides was not the part of the programme

(4) All of the above

  1. As per the Agricultural Policy of India, what do you mean by ‘issue prices’ ? ‘

(1) Prices at which the government purchases food grains from farmers.

(2) Prices at which government supplies food grains through ration shops.

(3) Prices at which the traders buy food grains from the farmers.

(4) Minimum prices guaranteed by the government to the farmers.

  1. Which of the following thing is not the problem related to environmental sustainability ?

(1) Destruction of living habitats of native species.

(2) Emission of Green House gases into atmosphere that can cause climate change.

(3) Increasing Disequilibrium in Balance of Payments.

(4) Depletion of low cost oil and other fossil fuel.

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) In 2014, the Government increased Foreign Investment upper limit from 26% to 49% in insurance sector.

(b) April 2015, FDI inflow in lndia increased by 100% since the launch of ‘Make in India’ initiative.

(c) India was ranking 9th in the world in 2014 in terms of 1:Dl flow.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) A11 of the above

  1. The acceptance of the contract farming system in India, which of the following would not be beneficial to the agriculture sector ?

(1) Private sector investments in agricultural sector will increase.

(2) Increase the load on the Central and State-Ievel contract mechanism.

(3) Migration from rural to urban areas will be reduced

(4) In rural communities especially, landless agricultural labours employment generation will be benefited.

  1. Which of the following is not the guiding principle of cooperatives?

(1) Disinvestment

(2) Forming Voluntary Association

(3) Equitable Distribution

(4) Democratic Control

  1. NABARD provides refinance to _______.

(a) Micro finance to small farmers

(b) Regional Rural Banks

(c) State Cooperative Banks

(d) Finance to rural artisans

Answer options :

(1) (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a),(b) (c) (d)

(4) and (d)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Corporate farming includes corporate ownership of farms and selling of agricultural product.

(b) These companies influence agricultural education, research and public policy.

(c) It is used in sustainable agriculture and local food movement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. For increasing water productivity, Maharashtra Agriculture Policy stressed on _______.

(a) Massive farm pond programme

(b) . Micro irrigation

(c) Equitable water pricing

(d) Micro finance

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  1. For reducing inorganic farming system in India, which of the following farming includes in the classification of organic farming ?

(a) Pure Organic Farming

(b) Integrated Green RevoIution Farming

(c) Subsistence Farming System

Answer options:

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (a) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) Only (b) and (c)

  1. Following are names of a few economists:

(a) A.K. Sen

(b) Jacob Viner

(c) Mahbub-ul-Haq

(d) R. Nurkse

Which of these names are associated with the concept of “human development” ?

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

  1. Which of the following country is not a part of SAARC?

(1) Afghanistan

(2) Nepal

(3) Israel

(4) Pakistan

  1. Consider the following statements.

(a) The Government launched the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in Dec. 2000.

(b) The Government of India introduced “The National Social Assistance Programme” in 1995.

(c) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched in 2014 on the birthday of Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect ?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) only (c)

(4) only (b)

  1. Which of the following is not the intention of the “Green Revolution in India” ?

(1) To reduce in the decrease of agricultural production and productivity.

(2) To meet the need of food grains of growing population.

(3) To solve the problem of employment due to increasing population.

(4) To meet the growing need for raw material needed for industrialization.

  1. Human Development Report 1995 launched two global gender indices. They are :

(a) Gender Inequality Index

(b) Gender related development Index

(c) Gender Empowerment Measure

(d) Gender Gap Index

Which of the above are correct options ?

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (c)

(3) (b), (c)

(4) (c), (d)

  1. There were _______ founding nations at the time of establishment of ASEAN.

(1) Five

(2) Ten

(3) Seven

(4) Fifteen

  1. Reducing inequality is not objective of :

(a) Millennium Development Goals

(b) Sustainable Development Goals

(c) Planning Goals

(d) World Trade Organisation

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) only (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) only (c)

  1. The “National Food Security Act” was enacted by Ministry of Consumers Affairs, Food and Public Distribution by end of______.

(I) January 201 2

(2) December 201 2

(3) December 2013

(4) None of above

  1. The macrominerals which are important in human nutrition are calcium, phosphorus, magnesium and electrolytes _________ sodium chloride and potassium.

(1) Iodine

(2) Iron

(3) Vitamin A

(4) Chloride

  1. The “Mid-day Meal Scheme” was launched by the ministry of “Human Resources Development” (IHRD) for the benefits of students in primary schools in year ___________.

(1) 1997-92

(2) 1992-93

(3) 1995-96

(4) 1998-99

  1. Head office of the “Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority”(APEDA) is at _______.

(1) New Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai

(4) Bangalore

  1. According to recommendation of planning commission “Medium irrigation projects” are those, where culturable command area is between ______________.

(1) 4000 to 10,000 hectares

(2) 2000 to 10,000 hectares

(3) 3000 to 8000 hectares

(4) None of above

  1. The “Lead Bank Scheme” was launched on the recommendations of the study group appointed by “National Credit Council” in October 1969 under the Chairmanship of :

(1) Prof. D.R. Gadgil

(2) Mr. Shivaraman

(3) Mr. Narasimha

(4) Mr. A.M. Khusro

  1. The share of irrigation in the total expenditure was more than 25 percent during ______ period.

(1) Sixth Five Year Plan

(2) Seventh Five Year Plan

(3) Eight Five Year Plan

(4) All of the above

  1. APEDA take the responsibility of export promotion and development of _________ product.

(1) Fruits, Vegetables and their products

(2) Dairy products

(3) Alcoholic and Non-alcoholic Beverages

(4) All the above

  1. Marginal farmer has land holding upto __________ ha.

(1) 1 .

(2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 2.5

  1. In India, the minimum support prices for major agricultural commodities are announced considering the recommendations of ______.

(1) C.A.C.P.

(2) N.C.D.C.

(3) N.A.F.E.D.

(4) A.P.M.C.

  1. ‘National Horticulture Board’ (NHB) was setup by Government of India in the year ____________.

(1) 1982

(2) 1984

(3) 1986

(4) 1985

  1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India came into existence on ______.

(1) 1 January, 1962

(2) 14 March, 1962

(3) 21 April, 1962

(4) 19 January, 1962

  1. Which of the following institutions acts as top level for fulfilment of financial needs in rural areas ?


(2) Reserve Bank of India

(3) State Bank of India

(4) All of the above

  1. Deficiency of _________ causes the disorder of reproductive failure in animals.

(1) Vitamin – E

(2) Vitamin – K

(3) Vitamin – B

(4) Vitamin – A

  1. For the purpose of updation and digitisation the land records, the “National Land Records Modernization Programme” (NLRMP) was started in the year ________.

(1) 2008

(2) 2009

(3) 2010

(4) 2011

  1. In India, the pilot project of geothermal energy is established at __________.

(1) Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh)

(2) Patancheru (Telangana)

(3) Khatkar Kalan (Punjab)

(4) Kota (Rajasthan)

  1. Some sentences which differentiate X-rays from y-rays are given below. Select the proper option to justify the difference.

(a) X-rays are due to energy changes emitted outside the nuclei whereas y-rays are emitted by the nuclei.

(b) X-rays are electromagnetic waves but y-rays are not.

(c) X-rays have lower frequency than y-rays.

(d) X-rays cannot be used for the preservation of food.

Answer options:

(1) (c) only

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d)

(4) all the above

  1. India currently has twenty one operating nuclear reactors at six locations across the country with combined capacity totalling upto :

(1) 9 GW

(2) 5.78 GW

(3) 5.92 GW

(4) 7GW

  1. In which of the power generation-involve minimum number of steps of energy conversion ?

(1) Solar thermal power plant

(2) Solar photovoltaic cell plant

(3) Hydroelectric power station

(4) Nuclear power plant

  1. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in __________.

(1) 1920

(2) 1928

(3) 1925

(4) 1938

  1. Abbreviations and corresponding long form of some atomic power stations, in India, are given below. Out of these longform one is wrong. Identify it.

(1) RAPS – Rajasthan Atomic Power Station

(2) MAPS – Madras Atomic Power Station

(3) NAPS – Narora Atomic Power Station

(4) KAPS – Karnataka Atomic Power Station

  1. Consider the following statements about NIT and CTBT :

(a) India has neither signed NIJT nor ratified it.

(b) India has signed CTBT but not yet ratified it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. There are problems associated with nuclear power generation.

(a) after fission of nuclear fuel emit harmful radiations.

(b) to dispose the nuclear waste is big challenge.

(c) non-availability of the sufficient nuclear fuel.

(d) accident may result in release of very harmful radiations.

Answer options:

(1) All are correct

(2) only (a), (c), (d) correct

(3) Only (c) correct

(4) Only (c) and (d) correct

  1. _________ is/are the first country/countries to start regular large scale manufacture and marketing of solar cookers.

(1) India and China

(2) China and USA

(3) China

(4) India,

  1. Which of the following is the heaviest rocket ever made by India ti11 now, capable of carrying Astronauts in space ?

(1) GSLV-Mk I

(2) GSLV-Mk II


(4) GSLV-Mk IV

  1. Which one of the following energy sources is not the environment friendly energy source ?

(1) Sunlight

(2) Natural gas

(3) Biofuel

(4) Wind with required velocity

  1. The Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is at :

(1) Bengaluru (Karnataka)

(2) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

(3) Hyderabad (Telangana)

(4) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)

  1. At present, LED light bulbs are better than CFL bulbs mainly because :

(a) They produce more efficient light than CFL bulbs

(b) They last 5 to 6 times longer than CFL bulbs

(c) They are cheaper than CFL bulbs

(d) They are more attractive than CFL bulbs

Answer options:

(1) only (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) only (c)

(4) all the above reasons

  1. GPS is a space-based radio navigation system owned by _________ government and operated by its Air Force.

(1) India

(2) China

(3) USSR

(4) USA

  1. Web browser software is programmed according to _______ standards.

(1) HTML

(2) SMTP

(3) POP

(4) IMAP

  1. The well-known ports assigned to the computer communication protocols HTTP and HTTPS are :

(a) 8080 and 443

(b) 25 and 23

(c) 80 and 404

(d) 80 and 443

Answer options :

(1) (a) only

(2) (d) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) None of these

  1. The ISCII code has been prepared for writing scripts in Indian languages in computers. What is the long form of ISCII ?

(1) International Script Code for Information interchange

(2) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange

(3) Indian Script Code for Information interchange

(4) Indian Script Code for International Interchange

  1. Which of the following is not malware or virus?

(1) Worm

(2) Trojan Horse

(3) Spyware

(4) Caterpillar

  1. Media Asia Lab set up by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology; Government of India is now known as :

(1) Digital India Lab

(2) India Informatics Limited

(3) Digital India Corporation

(4) National informatics Centre

  1. Bacillus thuringiensis produces a wide range of __________ proteins that have insecticidal properties.

(1) Cri

(2) Pri

(3) Cry

(4) SiR

  1. Amongst the following _________ and _________ do not form components of a Nucleoside.

(a) Phosphate

(b) Sugar

(c) Nitrogen base

(d) Magnesium

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. Cataract, a human genetic disorder is demonstrated by the deficiency of the enzyme _________.

(1) Urease

(2) Catalase

(3) Galactokinase

(4) Amylase

  1. Diagnostic kit for rapid detection of recombinant cry lA(c), cry 2A@) promoter genes in seeds of rice and cotton has been developed by __________.

(1) Dapoli Krishi Vidyapeeth, Maharashtra

(2) Shantha Biotech, Bangalore

(3) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

(4) Center for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics, Hyderabad

  1. The first animal patent issued in the early 1980’s to Harvard University for a mammal was named as ________.

(1) Dolly

(2) Oncomouse

(3) Idaho Gem

(4) Noto – Kaga

  1. Which of the following technique is used to prove the paternity of child?


(2) DNA Fingerprinting

(3) DNA Footprinting

(4) CIoning

  1. DiGeorge Syndrome is caused due to the _______.

(1) Failure of development of thymus

(2) Failure of development of bone marrow

(3) Calcium deficiency

(4) Iron deficiency

  1. ___________ are infectious agents composed exclusively of a single piece of circular single stranded RNA.

(1) Viruses

(2) Prions

(3) Viroids

(4) Bacteriophage

  1. _________ and _______ are the two methods that are more and more used for detection of diseases transmitted by seed and planting material.


(b) Tissue Culture

(c) PCR

(d) Cloning

Answer options:

(1) (a), (c)

(2) (b), (d)

(3) (a), (d)

(4) (b), (c)

  1. Genetic potential of plant cell to produce entire plant is called as ________.

(1) Power house

(2) Totipotency

(3) Germination

(4) Fertilization

  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are false ?

(a) Fermented apply cider is not considered as wine.

(b) Chardonnay is a variety of Vitis vinfera.

(c) Sugar could be added to certain grape sps to produce stable wine.

(d) Wines with less alcohol are stable.

Answer options:

(1) Only (b)

(2) (a), (b)

(3) (a), (d)

(4) Only (c)

  1. Balanced Salt Solution [BSS], Eagle’s Minimal Essential Medium [EMEM] are used mostly in _______.

(1) Plant tissue culture

(2) Animal tissue culture

(3) Hydroponics

(4) Bacterial growth

  1. __________ and ___________ are patented rice products claimed to be equivalent or superior to Indian Basmati.

(1) Jasmati and Texmati

(2) Sonrnasuri and Sonsuri

(3) Peekvati and Longvali

(4) Sajmati and Akra

  1. Govt. of India’s Health Ministry’s programme ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched in 2014 deals with __________.

(1) Male sterilization

(2) Increasing crop per drop

(3) Fully immunizing children and pregnant women with all available vaccines

(4) Funding for cloning

  1. Indian coast was said to be free from Tsunami disaster before

(1) 1 December 2004

(2) 26 December 2004

(3) 26 December 2001

(4) 1 December 1993

  1. Which of the following statements are true ?

(a) Disasters, which are often sudden and intense.

(b) A hazard is a natural event while the disaster is its consequence.

(c) Earthquakes and floods are the natural disasters.

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) All of the above

(4) Only (c)

  1. __________ the magnitude of Latur (Maharashtra) Earthquake was recorded on 30 Sept. 1993.

(1) 6.3 Richter Scale

(2) 7.3 Richter Scale

(3) 8.3 Richter Scale

(4) 5.3 Richter Scale

  1. The word ‘Tsunami’ is basically ___________.

(1) Russian

(2) Indian

(3) Indonesian

(4) Japanese

  1. What was the name of Cyclone appeared at North Indian ocean in December 2017?

(1) Laila

(2) Katrina

(3) Vardah

(4) Ockhi