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MPSC State Service (Main) Examination – 2018 – Paper 4

MPSC State Service (Main) Examination – 2018 – Paper 4

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court is similar to that h removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

(b) After retirement from the office a Permanent Judge of a High Court can’t plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.

Which of the above statement/s &/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Who said “Begin with the charter of duties of man, and! promise, the rights will follow as spring follows winter” ?

(1) Indira Gandhi

(2) Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) Mora ji Desai

  1. Which among the following is not a subject under state list?

(1) Inns and inn-keepers

(2) Betting and gambling

(3) Drugs and poisons

(4) Tolls

  1. The power of a High Court to hear disputes relating to the elections of members of Parliament and state legislatures falls under its :

(1) Supervisory jurisdiction

(2) Original jurisdiction

(3) Advisory jurisdiction

(4) Appellate jurisdiction

  1. Which of the following amendment has changed the subject matter of Article – 45 in the Constitution of India?

(1) 42nd amendment

(2) 44th amendment

(3) 86th amendment

(4) 97th amendment

  1. Which states have Bicameral system?

(a) Bihar, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh

(b) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Goa

(c) Haryana, Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, West Bengal

Answer options:

(1) (b) and (c) true

(2) (a) true

(3) (c) true

(4) None of these

  1. Which of the following schedule in Indian Constitution was added by the first amendment?

(1) 8th

(2) 9th

(3) 10th

(4) None

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Act in 1976 added Part N A to the Constitution.

(b) This Part consists of only one article, that is article 51 A.

(c) This amendment introduced a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.

(d) 89th Constitutional Amendment added one more duty in article 51 A

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (a) (c) and (d)

(4) All

  1. There are ______ departmentally related Standing Committees of the Indian Parliament, each committee consisting ________ members from Lok Sabha and _______ from Rajya Sabha.

(1) 3, 15, 10

(2) 24, 21, 10

(3) 3, 20, 10

(4) 20, 10, 10

  1. (a) The first Lokpal bill was introduced in the Parliament in 1968.

(b) The Institution of Lokpal has not yet come into existence in India. (Upto June 2018)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both

(4) None of above

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Prime Minister

(d) President

(e) Law Minister

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d) and (e)

  1. Which of the given statement is false regarding the Election Commission of India?

(1) The body is comprised of a Chief Election Commissioner and three Election Commissioners.

(2) The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners.

(3) They have a tenure of six years on upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.

(4) None of above.

  1. Consider the following, statements:

(a) A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human right only in respect of subjects mentioned in the state list.

(b) The Chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed and removed by the Governor

Answer options:

(1) Statement (a) is correct, (b) is false.

(2) Statement (b) is correct, (a) is false.

(3) Both the statements are correct.

(4) Both the statements are false.

  1. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?

(1) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

(2) Advocate General of the State

(3) State Public Service Commission

(4) State Human Rights Commission

  1. Who among the following was never a Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(1) K.S. Hegde

(2) Hukum Singh

(3) Krishnakant

(4) Gurdayalsingh Dhillon

  1. Which of the following statement is correct about the formation of states in Indian Union?

(a) It can be done by separation of territory from any existing states.

(b) It can be done by Uniting two or more states or part of states.

(c) The creation of New states can be accomplished by an ordinary legislation.

(d) The Parliament cannot alter the territory of the states without their consent.

  1. According to the Constitution proclamation of President’s rule in a state can be made:

(a) When a bill introduced by the State Government is defeated in the state legislature.

(b) If the State Government is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(c) If the State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre

(d) When the Governor and the Chief Minister of a state differ on a vital issue.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

  1. Which is correctly matched?

(1) Article 79 – Composition of the House of the People

(2) Article E4 – Qualification for Membership of Parliament

(3) Article 99 – Secretariat of Parliament

(4) Article 85 – Disqualification for Membership

  1. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of the Indian Parliament:

(a) Most of the bills can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President.

(b) Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution.

(c) The laws enacted by the Parliament can be declared as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution.

(d) The authority of the Parliament is restrained due to grant of certain Fundamental Rights to the citizens by the Constitution.

Answer options:

(1) Statements (a), (b), (d) are correct

(2) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.

(3) Statements (a), (c), (d) are correct.

(4) Statements (b), (c), (d) are correct.

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct about special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all laws.

(b) Indian Parliament cannot increase or reduce the borders of the state without the consent of its legislature.

(c) Part IV and IV A of the Indian Constitution are applicable to the state.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (c)

(2) (b) only

(3) (b), (c)

(4) None of the above

  1. The electoral college to elect the Vice President of India consists of ______.

(1) Elected members of both houses of Parliament

(2) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies

(3) All members of both houses of Parliament

(4) All members of Parliament and state Legislative asseinblies

  1. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) He Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

(b) The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both

(4) None

  1. What are the functions of National Commission for SCs?

(a) Investigate and monitor all matters to the legal safeguards for the SCs.

(b) Present Reports to Parliament.

(c) Advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of SCs.

Answer options:

(1) (a), (c)

(2) (a), (b)

(3) (b), (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. _________ in the Indian Constitution gives the Right against public hanging.

(1) Article 20

(2) Article 21

(3) Article 22

(4) Article 31 D

  1. For part three and four of the Indian Constitution the term ‘State’ includes:

(a) Government and Parliament of India.

(b) Government and legislature of each of the states.

(c) Local authorities.

(d) Other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of Government of India

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and (b)

(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)

(4) All

  1. Consider the statements about Indian federation :

(a) Indian Constitution has borrowed federal features from the US, Canadian and Australian Constitution.

(b) Indian federation was a result of an agreement between the units.

(c) The units of Indian federation have the right to secede.

Which statement/s is/are not correct ?

(1) Only (a)

(2) (b ) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) Only (c)

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) ‘Secular State’ means, the state protects all religions equally and does not itself uphold any religion as the state religion.

(b) The framers of the Constitution adopted Article 25, 26 and 27 so as to further secularism

(c) The secularism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) All above

  1. The National Commission for Minorities has notified _______ communities as minority communities in India, as of January 2014.

(1) Five

(2) Six

(3) Seven

(4) Eight

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(a) The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.

(b) While presiding over the House, the Deputy Chairman can vote in the first instance.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) Only (b) is correct

(3) (a) and (b) both are correct

(4) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

  1. There is a demand for creation of separate state of Bundelkhand covering the areas in the present states of ________ .

(1) Uttar Pradesh and Delhi

(2) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

(3) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

(4) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

  1. The Chairman of the Rajyasabha nominates a panel of not more than _______ Vice Chairmen.

(1) Two

(2) Five

(3) Six

(4) Four

  1. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

(1) It contains languages listed in the Constitution.

(2) It contains lists of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States.

(3) It allocates seats in the council of states.

(4) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.

  1. Which of the following writs can be issued only against Judicial and Quasi-judicial authorities ?

(1) Prohibition

(2) Certiorari

(3) Habeas Corpus

(4) Quo-warranto

  1. Which two changes were introduced in the Rajya Sabha elections in the year 2003?

(a) The candidate need not be resident of related state and open election to be conducted.

(b) The candidate shall be rejected if found criminal background and he must provide correct information of property.

(c) The candidate must have membership of National Party and 10 years of Political experience.

(d) He must not be a defeated candidate and age should not exceed 70 years.

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (b) correct

(2) (c) and (d) correct

(3) only (a) correct

(4) only (c) correct

  1. what is true about Socialist Party ?

(a) Socialist party was separated from Congress in 1938.

(b) Acharya Narendra Dev was a founder President of Socialist Party

(c) Jayaprakash Narayan, S.M. Joshi, Ashok Mehta were leaders of Socialist Party/ Praja Socialist Party.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a), (b)

(2) Only (b), (c)

(3) Only  (a), (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

  1. Which are the grounds of restrictions imposed on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution ?

(a) Contempt of court

(b) Defamation

(c) Contempt of Legislature

(d) Security of the state

Answer options :

(1) Only (a). (b), (d)

(2) Only (b), (c), (d)

(3) Only (a), (c), (d)

(4) Only (a), (b), (c)

  1. What is meant by ‘Kamaraj Plan’ ?

(1) All senior congressmen should resign from office to make way for younger party workers.

(2) All senior congressmen should unite and oppose to Indira Gandhi.

(3) All senior congressmen should hear the words of heart and vote for V.V. Giri.

(4) All senior congressmen should advice the younger party workers.

  1. Select the correct statement :

(a) The Election Commission of India was established on 26 November 1949.

(b) The Election Commission of India has provided experts and observers for elections to other countries in co-operation with United Nations and Common Wealth Secretariat.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Who was not a leader of Swatantra Party ?

(1) C. Rajgopalachari

(2) Minoo Masani ‘

(3) P.C. Joshi

(4) K.M. Munshi

  1. What is true about Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan ?

(a) He was a founder general secretary of Congress Socialist Party.

(b) He quit active politics in 1965.

(c) He was involved in Bhoodan Movement.

(d) He was a symbol of opposition to Emergency

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

  1. Select the correct statement:

(a) The ‘Central University of Bihar’ is rename as ‘Central University of South Bihar’.

(b) The second central university is established in Bihar by the name of ‘Jayaprakash Narayan Central University’.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. The fund sharing pattern between the central and state governments for Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was in the ratio of _______ since 2015 – 16 (except a few states).

(1) 60 : 40

(2) 75 : 25

(3) 70 : 30

(4) 65 : 35

  1. Select the correct statement :

(a) Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral reforms was set up in 1990.

(b) Indrajit Gupta Committee on Electoral reforms was set up in 1995.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. According to Indian Constitution which article/s state/s that court should not interfere in elections?

(a) article 324

(b) article 325

(c) article 327

(d) article 329

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) only (c) is correct

(3) only (d) is correct

(4) (a) and (d) are correct

  1. What are disqualifications of voter in India ?

(a) . Ground of non-residence

(b) Unsoundness of mind

(c) Crime or corrupt or illegal practice

(d) Holding office of profit

Answer options:

(1) Only (a), (b), (c)

(2) Only (b), (c), (d)

(3) Only (a), (c), (d)

(4) Only (a), (b), (d)

  1. Which student organization among the following is affiliated to the Communist Party of India (Marxist) ?

(1) Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad

(2) All India Students’ Federation

(3) National Students’ Union of India

(4) Progressive Students’ Union

  1. Which scheme provides financial assistance to Scheduled Caste students for pursuing research studies leading to M.Phi1, Ph.D. ?

(1) Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship

(2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar National Fellowship

(3) Babu Jagjivan Ram National Fellowship

(4) Mahatma Jotiba Phule National Fellowship

  1. Select the incorrect statement :

(1) In 1951 the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in the general election.

(2) A.K. Gopalan, S.A. Dange, Ajay Ghosh were leaders of CPI.

(3) In 1964 Communist Party split in two groups CPI supported to China and CPI (M) supported to Russia.

(4) In 1941 the Communist decided to support the British in their war against Nazi Germany.

  1. In every political system, each political party manifests different social context. Among the following sentences regarding Communist Party, which appropriately suits given groups ?

(a) The Communist Party is illegal.

(b) No law to prevent formation of Communist Party.

(c) Communist party is the torch bearer of revolution.

(d) Various branches of single party.

Which sequence of the following groups of countries correctly represents (a), (b), (c), (d) above ?

(1) England, America, India, China

(2) America, China, India, England

(3) America, England, China, India

(4) China,’ America, India, England

  1. Select the correct statement :

(a) Shetkari Sanghatana of Maharashtra declared the “Farmers movement as a war of Bharat against the forces of India”.

(b) The Bharatiya Kisan Union was one of the leading organizations in the farmer’s movement of the seventies.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Select the incorrect statement :

(1) The Electronic voting machine consists of control unit and ballot unit.

(2) One ballot unit caters upto sixteen candidates.

(3) One control unit can record the votes polled by 48 candidates.

(4) The Electronic voting machine operates on a 6 volts battery and can be used anywhere and under any conditions.

  1. Which sources – techniques are used in Formative Evaluation under the Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation Work Method ?

(a) Written Examination

(b) Daily Observation

(c) Project

(d) Homework/Exercise

Answer options:

(1) Only (a), (b), (c)

(2) Only (a), (b), (d)

(3) Only (a), (c), (d)

(4) Only (b) , (c), (d)

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 Census will continue to be in operation till the First Census after 2026.

(b) Delimitation commission demarcates the boundaries of constituencies of Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and Local bodies.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

(1) Both (a) and (b)

(2) Neither (a) nor (b)

(3) Only (b)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Select the correct statement :

(a) In July 2002, National Fish Worker’s Forum called for nationwide strike to oppose the move of the Government to issue licences to foreign trawlers.

(b) Rural women in remote villages from Andhra Pradesh fought a battle against alcoholism, against mafias and against Government, these agitations known as Anti-arrack movement.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Select the correct statements :

(a) The Press Council of India is a statutory fully judicial autonomous authority.

(b) The Press Council of India comprises a Chairman and 28 members.

(c) Preserving the freedom of press is objective of Press Council of India.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a), (b)

(2) Only (a), (c)

(3) Only (a), (c)

(4) All of the above

  1. Which constitutional amendment is related to reducing the voting age from 21 to 18 years ?

(1) Sixty first constitutional amendment

(2) Forty second constitutional amendment

(3) Sixty third constitutional amendment

(4) Eighty sixth constitutional amendment

  1. How many constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

(1) SC – 78, ST – 39

(2) SC – 84, ST – 47

(3) SC – 81, ST – 39

(4) SC – 79, ST – 41

  1. Which Higher Educational Institutions were established after 2014 in Andhra Pradesh ?

(a) Tribal University

(b) Mahatma Gandhi University

(c) Central University

(d) NIT

Answer options :

(1) Only (a). (b), (c)

(2) Only (a), (b), (d)

(3) Only (a), (c), (d)

(4) All of the above

  1. The ideology of Bharatiya Jan Sangh are :

(a) Idea of one country, one culture and one nation.

(b) The prosperity could come only through individual freedom.

(c) To replace English with Hindi as the official language of India.

(d) To oppose the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.

Answer options :

(1) Only (a), (b),(c)

(2) Only (a), (b), (d)

(3 ) Only (a), (c), (d)

(4) Only (b), (c), (d)

  1. The NIIZF declared rankings for Universities for the year 2018. What is the correct order for the following top 4 Institutions ?

(a) Banaras Hindu University

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru University

(c) Anna University

(d) Indian Institute of Science

Answer options :

(1) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(2) (d), (b), (a), (c)

(3) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) FICCI IS the largest and oldest business organization in India.

(b) FICCI is established under the ministry of commerce and industry.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Which of the following have only one seat in the Lok Sabha ?

(a) Mizoram

(b) Meghalaya

(c) Nagaland

(d) Sikkim

(e) Goa

(f) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c), (e), (f)

(3) (a), (c), (d), (f)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (f)

  1. According to Information Technology (Amendment)Act, 2008 code 70B the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT – In) operates in which of the following ?

(a) Collection, analysis and distribution of information related to the events of cyber security.

(b) To aware about, detect the events related to cyber security.

(c) To take emergency measures for cyber security events.

(d) To inform the parliament about cyber security events.

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

  1. Which of the following statement (S) is/are correct ?

(a) A cantonment board consists of nine elected members.

(b) The Chief Executive Officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the Defence Minister. In India, the cantonment boards are divided into three catagories. The Vice-President of the board is elected by all elected and nominated members for a term of five years.

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (d), (d)

(3) (d) only

(4) None of the above

  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) There is no office in the Union Government which can be equated to that of Chief Secretary in the state.

(2) The Chief Secretary is the Chief of State Secretaries, while the Cabinet Secretary at the central level is the Cheif of Central Secretaries.

(3) The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the State Secretariat while the Cabinet Secretary at the central level is not the administrative head of the central Secretariat.

(4) None of the above

  1. Find out the correct alternatives :

(a) The Block Development Officer is the head of the office of Panchayat Samiti.

(b) The Block Development Officer is a captain of a team of extension officers at the block level.

(c) The Block Development Officer is the secretary of the Panchayat Samici.

(d) The Block Development Officer is -the co-ordinator of political activities at block level.

Answer options :

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

  1. The ‘Oxford Dictionary’ defines the District Administration as :

(a) A territory marked off for special administrative purposes.

(b) The management of public affairs within a territory marked off special administrative purpose.

(c) The total functioning of Government in a district.

(d) The portion of Public Administration which functions in the territorial limits of the district.

Select the correct alternatives:

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (b) only

(4) (d) only

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) The Village Panchayat was a unit of local administration since the early British days, but they had to work under Govt. control. (b) In the Govt. of Indian Act, 1919, the power to enact Legislation was specially given to the Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List.

(c) Act 41 of the Indian Constitution provided that the state shall take steps to organise Village Panchayats.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (a), (b), (c)

  1. Which of the following has been provided by the 731d Amendment relating to Panchayati Raj ?

(1) One-third seats shall be reserved for women excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.

(2) The Panchayati Raj elected members shall be disqualified to hold their office if they have more than two children.

(3) 25 years to be minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats.

(4) Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

  1. Which one of the following statements with regard to the powers of the Governor of a state is/are correct ?

(a) The Governor can make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Govt. of the state.

(b) The Governor may dissolve the State Legislative Council during emergency under Article 356.

(c) The Governor has the power to decide on questions relating to the disqualification of members of the State Council of Ministers.

(d) Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the President’s consideration, the subsequent enactment of the Bill is in the hands of the President and the Governor shall have no further part in its career.

Answer options :

(1) (b) only

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) A motion of no-confidence is passed against President of Z.P. at a special meeting of the Zilla Parishad by a simple majority.

(b) No such motion of no-confidence shall be brought within a period of one year from the date of the election of the President. (c) The special meeting for considering the motion of no-confidence shall be presided over by the Collector.

(d) The special meeting for considering the motion of no-confidence shall not, for any reason, be adjourned.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Which of the following Administrative Reforms Commission/Committee have recommended that the distinction between the Secretariat as a policy-making body and the directorate as a policy-implementing body should be abolished ?

(1) Madhya Pradesh Administrative Reforms Commission.

(2) Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee.

(3) Punjab Administrative Reforms Commission.

(4) Kerala Administrative Reorganization and Economy Committee.

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) An Act of 1999 provides for the Constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in Maharashtra.

(b) As per provision of the act every Metropolitan Committee consisting of not less than fifty and not more than sixty members. (c) Chairperson of this Committee is elected from amongst themselves.

(d) The District Collector is the Ex-officio member of this Committee.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (b), (c)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

  1. One of the following is true with regard to the Council of Ministers in a state :

(1) The Ministers are appointed for a period of five years.

(2) The total number of Ministers in the state shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of the members df the two Houses of State Legislature.

(3) A disqualified member of the Legislative Assembly under Tenth Schedule is eligible to be a member of the State Council of Ministers.

(4) The advice tendered by the ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.

  1. The elements of District Administration are :

(a) Law and Order

(b) Revenue

(c) Jail administration

(d) District Planning Committee

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (c) and (d) only

(3) (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) Before Independence, the District Collector acted as both, the Executive Magistrate and the Judicial Magistrate.

( b) In accordance with Article 50 of the Indian Constitution the role of District Collector as a Judicial Magistrate came to an end. (c) In Maharashtra and Gujarat the Collector is made responsible both for regulatory and development administration.

(d) In Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan the Collector is made responsible only for regulatory administration.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c)  and (d)

(4) (a) and (c)

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) A Bill (other than a Money Bill) passed by the Assembly and the Council rejects it or does not passed the Bill within 3 months, the Assembly may again pass the Bill and transmit the Bill to the Council again.

(b) If on this second occasion the Council again rejects it or does not pass it within 1 month, the Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses.

(c) If a Bill passed by the Council transmitted to the Assembly and rejected by the latter, there is an end to the Bill.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (a), (b)

(4) (a), (b), (c)

  1. Choose the correct alternatives regarding the functions of Directorate:

(a) To provide technical advice to the Minister.

(b) To inspect execution of work by district departmental staff.

(c) To organize in service training programmers for departmental staff.

(d) To execute disciplinary powers over subordinate – officers as per rule.

Answer options :

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

  1. Who has the power to suspend the execution of any order or resolution of the Zilla Parishad or its Committee ?

(1) The Collector

(2) The Divisional Commissioner

(3) The Chief Executive Officer

(4) None of the above

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) No discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a state with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duty.

(b) The validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a state shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

Answer options :

(1) Statement (a) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are false

  1. The recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:

(a) The three-tier system should be replaced by the two-tier system.

(b) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs.

(c) No participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.

(d) If superseded, elections must be held within one year.

Answer options :

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b)

(4) (a), (d)

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) The JVP Committee rejected language as the basis of the reorganization of states.

(2) Fazal Ali Commission rejected the principle of ‘one language – one state’.

(3) Fazal Ali Commission recommended creation of 15 states and 6 Union territories.

(4) The State Reorganization Act, 1956 created 14 states and 6 Union territories

  1. Which one of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment Act of 1992 is incorrect ?

(1) This Act has added a new Part IX-A to the constitution of India.

(2) This Act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution.

(3) The Twelfth Schedule contains twenty nine functional items of Municipalities.

(4) None of the above.

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) State Legislature has the power to reject the changes brought in its area, name and boundaries by the Union Parliament of India.

(b) Parliament of India is bound to follow the suggestions of the State Legislature in the matters related to the State Boundaries.

Which of the above. Statement (s) is/are correct ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) Both are incorrect

  1. Consider the following statements :

(a) Sarpanch Committee is appointed by Panchayat Samitee.

(b) Sarpanch Committee gives advice and guidance to Panchayat Samitee.

(c) The Chairman of Panchayat Samitee is ex-officio Chairman of Sarpanch Committee.

(d) Extention Officer (Panchayati) is ex-officio Secretary of Sarpanch Committee.

Choose correct statements :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (A), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (b)

(4) All of the above

  1. A Minister for Panchayati Raj should be appointed in the State Council of Ministers to look after the affairs of the Panchayati Raj Institutions’. This recommendation has been made by which one of the following Committees ?

(1) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee

(3) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(4) L.M. Singhvi Committee

  1. Which one of the following is the majesterial work of Sub-Divisional Officer or Prant Officer ?

(1) To issue various kinds of statutory certificates.

(2) To hear all the cases in connection with tenancy cases under Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, 1948.

(3) To enquire police firing cases, police custody death cases.

(4) To control and supervision over the work of Tahsildars.

  1. Assertion (A) : Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

  1. A law passed by a state on concurrent subject get precedence over the law of the centre :

(1) if it was passed earlier than the central law.

(2) if it was passed by the State Legislature and approved by the President before enactment of the central law.

(3) if the Supreme Court so decides.

(4) if the majority of State Legislatures so decide.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding Municipal Corporation.

(a) The minimum number of elected councillors shall be 65.

(b) The maximum number of elected councillors shall be 221

(c) Number of nominated councillors not exceeding 7.

Which of the above statement is false ?

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) None of these


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