MPSC Maharashtra Group-C Service Preliminary Examination 2018

MPSC  Maharashtra Group-C Service Preliminary Examination 2018

1. Which designation was created to run the Indian administration after the Revolt of 1857?

(1) Secretary of State for India

(2) Lieutenant Governor

(3) Chief Commissioner

(4) External Affairs Minister

2. Which statements are correct regarding the ‘Indian Association’ ?
3. Dadabhai Naoroji took the initiative for the establishment of the Association.
4. Objective was to create friendly relationship between the Hindus and the Muslims.
5. Pherozeshah Mehta and K.T. Telang ran the Association. d. Efforts were made to enhance the age for Civil Services Examination.

Answer Options:

(1) a and b statements are correct

(2) a, b and c statements are correct

(3) Band c statements are correct

(4) b and d statements are correct

3. For which session of the Congress did the British officers try not giving any venue for it?

(1) Mumbai (1889)

(2) Allahabad (1888)

(3) Madras (1887)

(4) Calcutta (1886)

4. What are the salient features of the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
5. Participation of the Pathans under the leadership of Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.
6. Mahatma Gandhi returned the award of ‘Kaisar-i-Hind’ to the Government.
7. Sarojini Naidu led the Dharasana Salt Satyagraha. d. Best Performance of Women

Answer Options:

(1) a and c statements are correct

(2) b, c and d statements are correct

(3) a, c and d statements are correct

(4) Band d statements are correct

5. Devidas Kamble was the leader of the ______ from Pathri in Marathwada.

(1) Mahar Samaj

(2) Matang Samaj

(3) Mathadi Samaj

(4) Malkari Samaj

6. Khaksar means the

(1) Militant organization of the Muslims

(2) Militant organization of the Hindus

(3) Militant organization of the Sikhs

(4) Militant organization of the Gurkhas

7. Who from the following persons were participants in the establishment of ‘Hindustani La1 Sena’ in Vidarbha ?

(1) Madan La1 Bagdi, Vinayak S. Dandekar and Shyam Narayan Kashmiri

(2) Sukhdeo and Shyam Narayan Kashmiri

(3) Rajguru, Sukhdeo and Shyam Narayan Kashmiri

(4) Raj guru and Vinayak S. Dandekar

8. Moreshwar Vasudeo Abhyankar was a Home Rule activist from

(1) Marathwada

(2) Konkan

(3) Vidarbha

(4) Khandesh

9. Dalhousie’s policies of Imperialism, Subsidiary Alliance System and Doctrine of Lapse were the ________ causes of the Revolt of 1857.

(1) Social

(2) Political

(3) Economic

(4) Military

10. Khadilkar started ‘Navakal’ newspaper in 1925. Besides politics, which other subjects from the following were dealt in it ?
11. Trade
12. Education
13. Market Price
14. Cinema

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) a and c

11. Which of the following small scale industries was not incorporated in the ‘Wardha Scheme of Education’ of Gandhiji ?
12. Agriculture
13. Shoemaking
14. Pottery
15. Woodwork

Answer Options:

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a, c and d

(4) Only a and b

12. Who among the following was involved in the Mulshi Satyagraha along with Pandurang Bapat ?

(1) Krushanarao Bhalekar

(2) Dinkarrao Jawalkar

(3) Tatyasaheb Karandikar

(4) Shripatrao Shinde

13. Who established the ‘Rashtriya Mill Majdoor Sangh’ (RMMS) in Mumbai?

(1) G.D. Ambedkar

(2) S.M. Joshi

(3) N.M. Joshi

(4) Datta Samant

14. Which of the following factors is responsible for blowing of monsoon winds in India?

(1) Wide continental land

(2) Sea on three sides of India

(3) Existence of jet stream between 30″ to 40′ latitude belt

(4) All of the above

15. Arrange the correct sequence of cement industry from North to South.

(1) Chittorgarh, Sawai Madhopur, Khetri, Dalmia Dadri

(2) Dalmia Dadri. Sawai Madhopur, Chittorgarh, Khetri

(3) Sawai Madhopur, Chittorgarh, Khetri, Dalmia Dadri

(4) Dalmia Dadri, Khetri, Sawai Madhopur, Chittorgarh

16. In which State is Noonmati oil refinery located?

(1) Bihar

(2) Gujarat

(3) Assam

(4) None of the above

17. Kattha is obtained from ____ tree.

(1) Khair

(2) Sundri

(3) Teak

(4) Acacia

18. ______ State is leading in wind power energy.

(1) Maharashtra

(2) Kerala

(3) Karnataka

(4) Tamil Nadu

19. _______ is the headquarters of North-Eastern Railway Zone.

(1) Bhubaneshwar

(2) Hajipur

(3) Guwahati

(4) Gorakhpur

20. Examine the trueness of the following statements:

Statement ‘A’:  Majority portion of Maharashtra Plateau is occupied by ‘Basalt’ rock.

Statement ‘B’: The origin of Maharashtra Plateau is due to deposition of lava.

(1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are true

(2) Statement ‘A’ is true, but statement ‘B’ is false

(3) Statement ‘A’ is false, but statement ‘B’ is true

(4) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are false

21. Examine the trueness of following statements:

Statement ‘A’: The climate of Konkan is cold, uneven and dry.

Statement ‘B’: The climate of Maharashtra Plateau is hot, even and humid.

(1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are true.

(2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are false.

(3) Statement ‘A’ is true, but statement ‘B’ is false.

(4) Statement ‘A’ is false, but statement ‘B’ is true.

22. Examine the trueness of the following statements:

Statement ‘A’: While going from mean sea level to upward side, the temperature of air decreases. It is called Normal Temperature Lapse Rate.

Statement ‘B’: While going from mean sea level to upward side, the air temperature increases instead of decreasing. It is called inversion of temperature.

(1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are true.

(2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, both are false.

(3) Statement ‘A’ is true, but statement ‘B’ is false.

(4) Statement ‘A’ is false, but statement ‘B’ is true.

23. _______ is a research centre of India located in Antarctica.

(1) Aryabhatta

(2) Rohini

(3) Indira Point

(4) Maitri

24. Water holding capacity is more in Regur soil and hence is excellent for ________ crop.

(1) Rubber

(2) Coffee

(3) Jute

(4) Cotton

25. In _________ area is found a dense population where secondary activities are concentrated.

(1) Latur – Osmanabad

(2) Jalgaon – Bhusawal

(3) Pandharpur – Solapur

(4)  Pimpri – Chinchwad

26. Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income?
27. Product Method
28. Export-Import Method
29. Income Method
30. Expenditure Method

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) c and d

(3) Only b

(4) Only d

27. The Budget of the Central Government is divided in two parts, namely Revenue Account and Capital Account. Which are the two sources of revenue receipts to the Central Government?
28. External Loan
29. Tax Revenue
30. Small Savings
31. Non-tax Revenue

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and d

(3) c and d

(4) a and c

28. The Second Plan based on which of the following models emphasized the development of capital goods industries and basic industries?

(1) S.V.S. Raghavan model

(2) Chakravarthy model

(3) Kelkar model

(4) Mahalanobis model

29. Consider the following statements:
30. The Reserve Bank of India is the main agency for implementing the monetary policy.
31. To boost economic development is the aim of monetary policy.
32. Bank Rate is an instrument of monetary policy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and c

(4) All of the above

30. Consider the following statements:
31. A surplus budget may prove useful during the period of inflation.
32. A deficit budget is useful for removing unemployment.
33. In India, the Agricultural Ministry is responsible for framing the budget of the Union Government.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) Only b

(4) Only c

31. Which of the following was the nodal agency in the government of India for estimation of Poverty?

(1) Planning Commission

(2) National Sample Survey (NSS)

(3) Gadgil Committee

(4) Kothari Commission

32. Which of the following self employment programmers was launched during 1983-84, and was later incorporated into the Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) ?

(1) The Urban Self Employment Programme (USEP)

(2) The Urban Women Self-Help Programme (UWSP)

(3) Self Employment for Educated Urban Youth Programme (SEEW)

(4) Self Employment for the Rural Poor

33. Consider the following statements:
34. In October 1976, an organization named Controller General of Accounts was set up.
35. The Controller General of Accounts prepares a condensed form of the Appropriation Accounts and Financial Accounts of the Union Government.
36. The appropriation audit and regulatory audit are the statutory duties of the CGA

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) Only a

(3) b and c

(4) None of the above

34. Which of the following is/are the instruments of fiscal policy?
35. Foreign investment
36. Public expenditure
37. Taxes
38. Bank Rate Policy (BRP)

Answer Options:

(1) Only a

(2) b and c

(3) a and d

(4) Only d

35. Consider the following statements:
36. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) aims at creating self employment opportunities in rural areas.
37. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana aims at creating employment opportunities for both self employment and wage employment in urban areas.
38. In August 2011, the Parliament passed a new Act known as Mahatma Gandhi National Urban Employment Guarantee Act. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer Options:

(1) a and c

(2) b and c

(3) a and b

(4) All of the above

36. Consider the following statements according to demographic transition:
37. In Stage I an economy is primitive and backward.
38. In Stage II rapid growth of population takes place.
39. In Stage III fast industrialization and urbanization take place.
40. India entered into Stage II after 1921. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) All the above

37. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
38. An Auditor cannot check each and every transaction.
39. Audit evidence is not conclusive in nature.
40. An Auditor has to rely upon experts.

Answer Options:

(1) Only a

(2) b and c

(3) Only c

(4) a, b and c

38. Consider the following statements:
39. The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1St April, 1935. b. The RBI was nationalized in 1950.
40. The one-rupee note and coins of all denominations are issued by the Ministry of Finance of the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(3) Only c

(2) b and c

(4) Only b

39. Consider the following statements:
40. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are set up to promote exports.
41. The Finance Minister Shri Narasimha Rao introduced the new Economic Policy in 1991.
42. The Government has introduced the concept of agri export zones to encourage agricultural exports.

Which of the statements pen above are correct?

Answer Options:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and c

(4) All of the above

40. If 0.2 A current is passed for 1 minute through an electric iron whose resistance is 100 R, then how many joules of heat are, produced?

(1) 24 Joules

(2) 240 Joules

(3) 2400 Joules

(4) 24000 Joules

41. In the long form of the periodic table, the diagonal relationship is found between the following pairs of elements:

(1) Band Si

(2) Li and Mg

(3) Be and.AI

(4) All of these

42. The total number of sigma bonds involved in ethylene molecule is

(1) 3

(2) 5

(3) 2

(4) 1

43. Organ level of organization is found in which of the following phyla?

(1) Forilera

(2) Protozoa

(3) Platy helminthes

(4) Coelenterata

44. Malleus, Incus and Stapes are also called

(1) Ear ossicles

(2) Auditory vesicles

(3) Bony ear

(4) Auditory bones

45. Yellow-green algae is known as

(1) Chlorophyceae

(2) Cyanophyceae

(3) Phaeophyceae

(4) Xanthophyceae

46. The group of fungi Mucorales is called

(1) Black Molds

(2) Blue Molds

(3) Green Molds

(4) Yellow Molds

47. Bunchy top disease is most common in ________ crop.

(1) Papaya

(2) Citrus

(3) Sugarcane

(4) Banana

48. UIP was launched in India in the year 1985 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. UIP stands for

(1) Universal Immunization Programme

(2) Unique Identification Programme

(3) United Indian Policy

(4) None of the above

49. The 12D treatment on food refers to

(1) Heat treatment sufficient to kill 12 bacteria.

(2) The use of 12 (twelve) different treatments to preserve food.

(3) A 1012 reduction of Clostridium botulinum endospores

(4) Any process that destroys thermophilic bacteria.

50. In the process of clotting, the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

(1) Is the final step of clotting process that involves multiple clotting factors

(2) Occurs when fibrinogen is released from broken platelets

(3) Is linked to hypertension and may damage artery walls

(4) Is likely to occur too often in an individual with hemophilia

Study the following information carefully and answer the question :

N, U, E, G, I, S and X are seven students studying in three different colleges. Minimum two are studying in each college. Each of them has a favourite subject from English, History, Geography, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology, not necessarily in the same order. E’s favourite subject is Physics and studies in college number 2 with only N. I does not study in college number 2 and he likes English. G studies in college number 3 and does not like Mathematics. Those who like Geography and Chemistry, study in the same college. X likes Biology and does not study in college number 1. S does not study with I. S does not like Chemistry. N does not like History.

51. In which college does ‘S’ study ?

(1) Number 1

(2) Number 2

(3) Number 3

(4) Not confirmed

52. In a certain code language, the word LANGUAGE is written as NDPJWDIH. How will be the word OFFICIAL be written in that code ?

(1) QIILELCM

(2) QIHLELCO

(3) QIILEJCM

(4) QIHLEKCO

53. Which of the following options will occur in place of the question mark in the given number series ?

26, 50, 82, ?

(1) 122

(2) 170

(3) 145

(4) 101

54. In the given number series, which number will replace the question mark ?

11, 5, 20, 12, 38, ?, 74, 54

(1) 42

(2) 32

(3) 26

(4) 22

55. A, B, C, D and E are standing facing to the north in a playground such as given below :
56. B is at 40 m to the right of D.
57. A is at 60 m to the south of B.
58. C is at a distance of 25 m to the west of D.
59. E is at a distance of 90 m to the north of A.

Who is in the North-east of the person, who is to the left of B ?

(1) A

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

56. If PEN = 70, BOOK = 86, then DUSTER = ?

(1) 174

(2) 184

(3) 186

(4) 188

57. A person is standing on a railway bridge which is 180 m long. A train crosses that person in 8 sec and the bridge in 20 sec. Find the speed and length of the train ?

(1) 115 m and 15 m/s

(2) 120 m and 10 m/s

(3) 110 m and 15 m/s

(4) 120 m and 15 m/s

58. 60% of 1600 is equal to 80% of x. Then find the value of x.

(1) 1000

(2) 1200

(3) 1400

(4) 1600

59. A tap can fill a water tank in 4 hours. Due to leakage at the bottom, it is filled in 6 hours. When the tank is full, in how much time will it get empty by the leakage ?

(1) 24hours

(2) 16 hours

(3) 12 hours

(4) 10 hours

60. Two ships A and R start their journey from two islands which are 155 nautical miles apart. The ship A is to the west of the ship B and starts its journey to the east with the speed of 25 nautical miles per hour. At the same time, ship B starts its journey to the south with the speed of 20 nautical miles per hour. After 3 hours, what is the distance between the two ships ?

(1) 120 nautical miles

(2) 100 nautical miles

(3) 90 nautical miles

(4) 80 nautical miles

61. A work is completed by 20 workers in 15 days by working 6 hours per day. How many days will it take to complete the same work by 15 workers by working 8 hours per day ?

(1) 12 days

(2) 15 days

(3) 20 days

(4) 18 days

62. x and y are inversely proportional. When x = 3, then y = 4, so when x = 9, find the value of y.

(1) 3/4

(2) 3/7

(3) 5/3

(4) 4/3

63. Newly inducted submarine INS Kalvari is developed with the help of which country ?

(1) United States of America

(2) Japan

(3) France

(4) Israel

64. Christian0 Ronaldo, who won a record equalling fifth Ballon d’Or award for the year’s best player, currently plays for which of the following clubs ?

(1) F.C. Barcelona

(2) Juventus

(3) Real Madrid

(4) A.C. Milan

65. Which State in India has recently (February, 2018) announced the Policy of Financial Technology (Fintech) ?

(1) Maharashtra

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Karnataka

(4) Gujarat

66. Global Entrepreneurship Summit, 2017 was organized in which city of India ?

(1) Mumbai

(2) Hyderabad

(3) New Delhi

(4) Varanasi

67. France won their 10^th Davis Cup title defeating which country in the Final ?

(1) Germany

(2) Italy

(3) U.S.A.

(4) Belgium

68. Which of the following IAS officers was recently (Jan. 2018) appointed as a Director General of the Sports Authority of India (SAI) ?

(1) Poma Tudu

(2) Surendra Kumar Solanki

(3) Deepak Kapoor

(4) Neelam Kapur

69. Which film was awarded with the ‘Golden Peacock’ Award in the 48th Indian International Film Festival ?

(1) Angels Wear White

(2) Take Off

(3) Kshitij

(4) 120 Beats per Minute

70. Who among the following bagged the IFF1 Lifetime Achievement Award in 2017 ?

(1) Atom Egoyan

(2) Vivian Qu

(3) Arnitabh Bachchan

(4) Kiro Russo