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MPSC Maharashtra Forest Service Preliminary Examination 2018 – Question Paper

MPSC Maharashtra Forest Service Preliminary Examination 2018 – Question Paper

  1. Pick out the incorrect pair from the following:

(a) Foolish – foolishly

(b) Active – actively

(c) Ideal – ideally

(d) Week – weekly

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (d) only

  1. A semi-colon is frequently used to separate __________ when the second is introduced by one of the adverbs, therefore, hence etc.

(1) Interrogation

(2) two-co-ordinate clauses

(3) Exclamation

(4) Two possessive nouns

  1. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

(1) I have seen the film last night

(2) Father has been ill since ten years

(3) Whom did you see?

(4) My brother is engineer

  1. Select the correct cohesive devices for the following sentences:

______ people fear the outbreak of the nuclear war. _______ they are concerned over the continuing pollution of the environment.

(1) Firstly, Secondly

(2) To begin with, Secondly

(3) Firstly, Besides

(4) Both (1) and (2)

  1. Point out the incorrect sentence:

(1) William Shakespeare’s plays are read all over the world

(2) The top of the temple is golden at Amritsar

(3) The essays of Bertrand Russell are not popular

(4) The tin roof of the house was thrown away in a whirlwind

  1. The apostrophe is used to show ______ in contractions.

(1) Omitted letters

(2) Sudden change

(3) Separation of words

(4) Quotation

  1. (a) She sings good.

(b) She sings well.

(c) I did it anyhow.

Identify the correct sentence/s

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (a) and (c)

  1. Kamala said to Akshay, “Are you not ashamed of yourself?”

The correct indirect narration of this sentence is ……………

(1) Kamala asked Akshay if he is not ashamed of himself.

(2) Kamala asked Akshay if you are not ashamed of yourself.

(3) Kamala asked Akshay if he was not ashamed of himself.

(4) Kamala asked Akshay if she is not ashamed of herself.

  1. Which of the following word is synonymous to ‘light hooded windproof jacket’ ?

(1) Wind cheater

(2) Cagolue

(3) Wind coat

(4) Calcify

  1. (a) He was always honest, although he was poor.

(b) Only hold your tongue, and you can hold anything else.

(c) I had lost my keys, but I have found them.

Identify the odd sentence/s.

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) None the above

  1. Match the following:

(a) A person who is guilty of heresy (i) Flamboyant

(b) Deserving blame (ii) Culinary

(c) Connected with cooking (iii) Culpable

(d) Showy and confident behaviour (iv) Heretic

Answer options:

(a)   (b)    (c)    (d)

(1) (i)   (ii)    (iii)   (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv)    (i)     (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv)    (ii)    (i)

(4) (iv) (iii)    (ii)    (i)

  1. Point out the incorrect sentence:

(1) The diseased sheep of the flock dies first

(2) Excessive chocolate-eating leads to decaying of teeth

(3) It is very difficult to remember the structural formulae of all the chemical compounds

(4) Some people purchase costly furnitures

  1. Choose the best alternative to fill in the blank.

My old car’s finally _____

(1) Taken up the ghost

(2) Given up the God

(3) Given up the ghost

(4) Carried up the ghost

  1. (a) You need not be in such a hurry, need you?

(b) We used to play here, don’t we?

(c) Call the doctor, don’t you?

(d) Let’s go now, shall we?

Identify the correct sentence/s.

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (b) and (d)

(3) Only (a) and (d)

(4) Only (b) and (d)

  1. Point out the incorrect sentence:

(1) The saddest thing in our life is someday we have to die.

(2) Sonu always preferred coffee to tea.

(3) Old people always near the death’s chariot hurrying near.

(4) Two trucks collided in the foggy morning.

  1. Which group of the following is the correct example of personal dual gender?

(1) Boy friend, female student, girl friend

(2) Father, mother, king

(3) Bull, cow, ant

(4) Artist, chef, singer

  1. Which of the following is the correct example of premodlfying degree of adverb?

(1) How thirsty are they?

(2) The gossip is totally false

(3) This is my very best book

(4) They have nearly finished their lunch

  1. Which of the following refer to sounds?

(a) Babble

(b) Obnoxious

(c) Patter

Answer options:

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

  1. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Finite verb phrases have tense distinction

(2) Finite verb phrases have time distinction

(3) Finite verb phrases have clause distinction

(4) Finite verb phrases have meaning distinction

  1. ‘He managed to get across the field’.

In above sentence the underlined preposition is the example of _________.

(1) Metaphorical meaning

(2) Resultative meaning

(3) Orientation

(4) Pervasive meaning

  1. Choose the correct sentence from the following sentences:

(a) When they reached the airport, the plane had already taken off.

(b) When they reached the airport, the plane already took off.

Answer options:

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of the above

  1. (a) You must stop chewing tobacco.

(b) He used to smoke very early in his childhood.

(c) They have to adjust with the changing situations.

(d) Women dare not walk alone late at night in the deserted streets.

The underlined words in the above sentences have ………… verbs.

Answer options:

(1) Transitive

(2) Modal

(3) Auxiliary

(4) Intransitive

  1. Point out the correct sentence:

(1) Iron is chemical element

(2) An iron is chemical element

(3) Iron is a chemical element

(4) The iron is a chemical element

  1. Identify the sentence punctuated correctly:

(a) What an honest boy he is?

(b) He says: Laws die, books never.

(c) Gandhiji led a noble life; he died a noble death.

(d) 0 God help me.

Answer options:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) (d) only

  1. Point out the sentence that has a correct question tag:

(1) There is a lot of traffic in the evening, isn’t it?

(2) Shekhar will not be here soon, won’t he?

(3) It is a nice morning, isn’t it?

(4) Let’s go out for dinning, Should we?

  1. What is SIMBEX – 17?

(a) It is a software manufactured by Apple Company.

(b) It is a computer virus.

(c) It is joint Naval exercise conducted jointly by India and Singapore.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) None of the above

  1. This country recently confirmed it’s withdrawal from UNESCO following the withdrawal of U.S.A.:

(1) Palestine

(2) Saudi Arabia

(3) Israel

(4) Iraq

  1. To eradicate malnutrition in Tribal area, Maharashtra Govt. has started ‘Amrut Aahar Yojana’ by the name of _________.

(1) Pandit Din Dayal Upadhyay

(2) Madan Mohan Malviya

(3) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(4) None of these

  1. As per Union Budget 2018-19 ‘Eklavya Model Residential School’ will be established by 2022, consider the following statements about it:

(a) It will be established only for Scheduled Tribes.

(b) It will be established in every block with more than 50 percent Scheduled Tribes population.

(c) It will be established in every block having at least 20,000 tribal persons.

Answer options:

(1) Statements (a), (b) are correct

(2) Statements (a), (c) are correct

(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct

(4) Only statement (a) is correct

  1. For better performance in Disable Welfare which Development Corporation received President Award in 2016-17 ?

(1) Maharashtra Disabled Development Corporation

(2) Maharashtra Finance Board

(3) Indian Development Corporation

(4) Maharashtra Disabled and Finance Development Corporation

  1. (a) Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant construction is a joint initiative by India and Russia.

(b) Rooppur will be Bangladesh’s First Atomic Energy Project.

(c) Bangladesh is a member of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Answer options:

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) ( b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (c)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) The World class technology – AMBIS – (Automated Multimodel Biometric Identification System) is used first time in Maharashtra for Finger Print.

(b) Maharashtra is the first state in the country to utilize this technology.

Answer options:

(1) Statement (a) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is correct

(3) Both the statements are false

(4) Both the statements are correct

  1. Which resolutions of UNO have been ratified by India for protecting human rights?

(a) Declaration of Human Rights – 10 Dec. 1948.

(b) International Convention on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination – ICERD.

(c) Convention against the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women – CEDAW.

(d) Convention on Rights of the Child – CRC.

Choose correct option:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (4, (b), (c) and (d)

(4) Only (a)

  1. ‘IMBAX’ bilateral military exercise held in November 2017 between ________

(1) India – Kazakisthan

(2) India – Myanmar

(3) India – Singapore

(4) India – France

  1. Which of the following states have filed petition in Supreme Court for Restructuring of Krishna river water distribution?

(1) Andhra Pradesh – Telangana

(2) Telangana – Maharashtra

(3) Karnataka – Maharashtra

(4) Andhra Pradesh – Karnataka

  1. (a) The newly constructed Dhola-Sadia bridge is located on Brahmaputra River.

(b) The bridge connects the states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.

(c) It is India’s longest bridge.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) Only (a)

  1. Consider the following statements about ‘Ashgabat Agreement’:

(a) It was signed in April 2011.

(b) It establishes international transport between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf Countries.

(c) India has recently joined it.

(d) Pakistan is also its member.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(1) (a)’ (b)’ (c)

(2) (b)’ (c)’ (d)

(3) (a)’ (b)’ (c)’ (d)

(4) (b) and (c) only

  1. (a) Akodara has become India’s first digital village.

(b) The village is located in Maharashtra.

(c) The village is adopted and developed by ICICI bank.

Which of the above is/are true?

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) Only (a)

(4) (a) and (b)

  1. Identify the correct pair:

(1) Vice-Chairman, NIT1 Aayog  – Arvind Pangaria

(2) Chairman, 15th Finance Commission – Y.V. Reddy

(3) Chairman, 21St Law Commission  – Balbir Singh Chauhan

(4) Chairman, University Grant Commission – Virander Singh Chauhan

  1. (a) The 15th Finance Commission is headed by N.K. Singh

(b) The Finance Commission is not mentioned in the constitution.

(c) Finance Commission decides how revenue is distributed between centre and states.

Which of the above is/are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. (a) India ranked 62nd on Inclusive Development Index (IDI) report of 2018.

(b) The report is prepared by World Bank.

(c) The 3 pillars of ID1 are growth and development, inclusion and intergenerational equity.

Which of the above is/are true?

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) Only (a)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. What is the feature of Second Train connecting India and Bangladesh?

(a) Known as a Bandhan Express.

(b) Runs between Kolkatta to Khulna.

(c) Inaugurated in Nov. 2017.

(d) Hoisted the green flag by both Prime Ministers through video-conferencing.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and (b)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c ), (d)

  1. The aim of the ‘SANKALF Programme of Union government is ________

(1) eliminating the tuberculosis by 2025.

(2) reducing the poverty level by 50% from the existing poverty level.

(3) providing market-relevant training to 3.5 crore youth across the country.

(4) providing affordable houses to rural BPL families.

  1. (a) The India International Exchange (INX) is India’s first international stock exchange opened in 2017.

(b) INX is located in Mumbai.

(c) INX will remain open for trading for 22 hours a day.

Which of the above is true?

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (c)

  1. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017 – 2031:

(a) This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.

(b) This NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognised the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

(c) It underlines increased role of private sector in wildlife conservation.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) Only (b)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(a) Article 262 (2) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to enact provisions barring the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or other courts relating to water disputes of inter-state rivers.

(b) The Supreme Court verdict on Cauvery Water dispute of 16th February 2018 expanded the appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court (by giving re-interpretation of Article 136).

Answer options:

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Only the statement (a) is correct

(3) Both the statements are false

(4) Only the statement (b) is correct

  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The total number of Judges of the International Court of Justice is 15.

(2) The term of office of a Judge of the International Court of Justice is 5 years.

(3) Judges of ICJ are elected by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.

(4) Justice Dalveer Bhandari has been re-elected to the International Court of Justice

  1. Stephen Howking’s book _________ is related with the concepts of universe, time, space and gravity.

(1) Grand Design

(2) A Brief History of time

(3) My Brief History

(4) Black Holes and Baby Universe and other’s Essays

  1. Priya scored more than Neha. Harsh scored as much as Rakesh. Rahul scored less than Divya. Neha scored more than Harsh. Divya scored less than Rakesh. Who scored the lowest?

(1) Divya

(2) Harsh

(3) Rahul

(4) Neha

  1. For testing their stamina Zina and Dina decided to have a cycling race from point A to B and back. Zina averages 30 km per hour to B and 10 km per hour to point A. Dina averages 20 km per hour in both directions. If both began the race at the same time select the appropriate option that indicates the result.

(1) Both finish race at the same time.

(2) Zina took more time than Dina to complete the race.

(3) Dina took more time than Zina to complete the race.

(4) Data given is not sufficient to determine the result.

  1. Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Point A is 8 m. to the West of point B.

Point C is 4 m. to the South of point B.

Point D is 4 m. to the East of point C.

Point E is 7 m. to the North of point D.

Point F is 8 m. to the West of point E.

Point G is 3 m. to the South of point F.

How far is point F from point A ?

(1) 7 m.

(2) 11 m.

(3) 4 m.

(4) 4 m.

  1. In a certain code language, ‘Ka Bi Pu Ya’ means ‘You are very intelligent’; ‘Ya Lo Ka Wo’ means ‘They seem very intelligent’; ‘La Pu Le’ means ‘You can see’ and ‘Sun Pun Yun Ya’ means ‘How intelligent she is’. In that code language, which of the words means ‘are’ ?

(1) Ka

(2) Bi

(3) Le

(4) Pu

  1. If a is 3, b is 5, c is 7 and so on; in a code language, then how ‘SPORTSMAN’ can be written in that code language ?

(1) 39 33 31 37 41 39 27 3 29

(2) 39 33 31 41 41 39 27 3 29

(3) 39 33 31 37 41 32 27 3 29

(4) 39 33 31 37 37 39 27 3 29

  1. Find the odd man out, among the given number groups.

92432, 48422, 67626, 78428

(1) 92432

(2) 48422

(3) 67626

(4) 78428

  1. A letter series with some missing letters is given. The missing letters, with the sequence in the series are given in one of the options. Select that option.

a b b b b b a b b

(1) a a b

(2) b a b

(3) a b b

(4) b b a

  1. In a code language if OVER is coded as QYIW then how STAR will be coded ?

(1) UWEV

(2) UWDV

(3) UVBS

(4) UWEW

  1. Study the information given below about quantities and select option that describes these appropriately.

Quantity X – The least prime number greater than 30

Quantity Y – The greatest prime number less than 36

(1) Quantity X is greater.

(2) Quantity Y is greater.

(3) There is no difference between the quantities, X and Y.

(4) One quantity is less by six than other quantity.

  1. How many meaningful words can be formed, from the given letter group, ‘ADER’ using one letter once ?

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) More than 3

  1. Madhu’s age is twice as that of his sister’s present age and 1/3rd of his mother’s age. The age of Madhu’s mother after 8 years will be 50 years. What is the Madhu’s sister’s present age ?

(1) 7

(2) 5

(3) 9

(4) 11

  1. 6 persons are standing in a queue with different ages. After two years, their average age will be 43 and when seventh person joins them; the present average age becomes 45. Then what is the present age of the seventh person ?

(1) 52

(2) 69

(3) 43

(4) 31

  1. A word series with some logic is given below. Select the correct option, which will replace the question mark.

EAR OF GET MOUTH IVORY TAJ ?

(1) BOY

(2) KID

(3) GIRL

(4) TUB

  1. Select proper option in place of question mark, in the given number series.

2, 8, 26, 80, ?

(1) 420

(2) 316

(3) 286

(4) 242

  1. In the following alphabet series choose correct alternative in place of question mark.

EYP, FUR, HQT, ? , OIX.

(1) IMV

(2) KMV

(3) LNU

(4) JLV

  1. Which number will come in place of question mark in the following number series ?

5, 54, 90, 115, 131,140, ?

(1) 149

(2) 146

(3) 144

(4) 152

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